Showing posts with label 2016. Show all posts
Showing posts with label 2016. Show all posts

Monday, February 23, 2026

Justice Ansul quashes, sets aside judgment of conviction, order of sentence by 1st Additional District & Sessions Judge-cum-Special Judge Excise, Jamui, modifies order by 2nd Additional District & Sessions Judge, Bhojpur

In Aneesh Manjhi vs. The State of Bihar  (2026), Justice Ansul of Patna High Court delivered a 6-page judgement dated January 27, 2026 wherein, he quashed and set aside the impugned judgment of conviction and order of sentence dated June 30, 2021 passed1st Additional District & Sessions Judge-cum-Special Judge Excise, Jamui in a case of 2018. He took oath as a judge of the High Court on January 27, 2026, taking total number of working judges in the High Court to 38. The court has 53 sanctioned posts, which means that even after his joining, 15 posts still remain vacant. 

In his first judgement as judge, Justice Ansul observed:"....it appears that there is no independent witness to support the prosecution case and all the witnesses are official witnesses and the breath analyzer machine has not been produced to substantiate the charge under Section 37(b) of Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 and also there is nothing on record to suggest that whether breath analyzer machine was capable to give correct report. Again no blood test of accused seems to have been conducted which is a major flaw. The procedure for search and seizure has not been followed, therefore, it creates a serious doubt and thus the appellant deserves to be acquitted of the charges levelled against him." 

The trial court had convicted the appellant for the offence punishable under Section 37(b) of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 and awarded sentence to a fine of Rs. 50,000/- and on default of payment of fine the appellant will have to suffer imprisonment for three months. The High Court noted that the appellant had already suffered prior to conviction, the same shall be adjusted against three months sentence. Consequently, the appellant was acquitted from the charges levelled against him. Since the appellant was on bail, he was discharged from his liabilities of bail bonds and sureties.

As per fardbeyan of informant, namely, Kamlesh Kumar Singh, ASI, Malaypur Police Station, the case of the prosecution was that he had lodged a written report stating that on August 20, 2018 at about 14.30 o'clock when he along with his patrolling party proceeded he got an information on mobile that the appellant was in inebriated condition and creating nuisance in the locality. In order to verify his intoxicating condition, he was examined by breath analyzer machine and it was found that he has consumed 0.19 Ml alcohol, thereafter, on the basis of the written report the case, i.e., Malaypur P.S. Case was registered for the offences under Section 290 of the IPC and 37(b) of Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016. The trial court after perusal of materials collected during investigation and hearing the accused/appellant took cognizance on February 28, 2019 under Section 290 IPC and Section 37(b) of Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016, thereafter, the charges were framed on May 4, 2019 under Section 290 IPC and Section 37(b) of Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 against the appellant, which was explained to the appellant, to which, he pleaded not guilty and claimed to be tried. To substantiate its case, the prosecution examined six witnesses.

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Sentencing order by 2nd Additional District & Sessions Judge, Bhojpur modified  

In Jitendra Singh @ Jitendra Kumar Singh vs. The State of Bihar (2026), Justice Ansul of Patna High Court delivered a 7-page judgement dated January 27, 2026 wherein, he concluded:"13. Having carefully considered the witnesses', testimony and the medical evidence, I find no grounds to interfere with the appellant's conviction. 14. However, the matter arises out of a land dispute and no previous conviction has been proved against the appellant. He has remained in custody for six years six months and is facing prosecution for last nine years and is in his 30's. Taking a holistic view, ends of justice would be saved if he is sentenced to period already undergone. Accordingly, the sentence awarded to the appellant is reduced to the period already undergone by him. 15. In the result, the appeal is dismissed with the aforesaid modification in the sentence."

The appeal was preferred by the appellant for setting aside the impugned judgment of conviction and order of sentence dated July 9, 2021 and July 31, 2021 respectively passed by 2nd Additional District & Sessions Judge, Bhojpur at Arrah in a case of 2019 which arose out of a P.S. Case of 2017, whereby the concerned Trial Court convicted the appellant for the offence punishable under Section 307 of the IPC and sentenced to undergo rigorous imprisonment for ten years and fine of Rs. 50,000/- only and for the offences under Section 504/34 IPC one year and six months R.I. and fine of Rs. 10,000/- only. 

The prosecution case, as per fardbeyan of informant, namely, Harendra Singh (P.W.-2) was that the appellant who was the cousin of the informant Harendra Singh came to his native village on April 24, 2017. On the same day, due to a domestic dispute, the appellant, appellant's brother namely, Krishna Singh and his mother Parvati Devi were abusing the informant at around 02:00 P.M. and when the informant and his mother stopped them from abusing, the accused suddenly came out of the room with a pistol in his hand and fired a shot at the informant, which hit him on his back and he fell down. After falling down, the accused fired another shot. Upon the informant's shouting the accused left the house with the pistol in his hand and said that whoever comes in his way will be shot. The informant's father and a villager Yogendra Singh took the injured to the police station and then to Sadar Hospital Arrah for treatment where after primary treatment by the doctor, he was referred to P.M.C.H., Patna where he was treated from April 24, 2017 to April 29, 2017. During this period no statement was recorded by any police officer. Due to this, the informant gave a written application to Arrah Mufassil on May 1, 2017. Based on the written application of the informant, Arrah Mufassil P.S. Case was registered under Sections 341, 323, 504, 307 read with 34 of the IPC and under Section 27 of the Arms Act against the appellant and other co-accused persons namely Krishna Singh and Parvati Devi. 

After completion of investigation and on the basis of materials collected during investigation, the Investigating Officer of this case submitted charge-sheet dated April 30, 2018 under Sections 341, 323, 504, 307/34 of the IPC and Section 27 of the Arms Act against the appellant before the Trial Court. The trial court after perusal of materials collected during investigation and hearing the accused/appellant took cognizance on May 16, 2018 under Sections 341, 323, 504, 307/34 IPC and Section 27 of the Arms Act, thereafter, the charges were framed on August 9, 2019 under Sections 341, 323, 504, 307 and 34 of the IPC against the appellant, which was explained to the appellant, to which, he pleaded not guilty and claimed to be tried. To substantiate its case, the prosecution examined altogether five witnesses. On the basis of evidences/circumstances which emerged during the trial, the trial court examined the appellant/accused under Section 313 of the CrPC, wherein, he completely denied the evidences during the trial and claimed his complete innocence. The Trial Court had convicted the appellant for the offences under Section 307 of the IPC and sentenced him. 

Justice Ansul observed: "11. It appears from perusal of record that altogether five witnesses have been examined during trial. P.W.-1, Sunaina Devi, who is mother of the informant has deposed that the appellant has shot two bullets which hit on the back of the informant. Thereafter, he was taken to the hospital. She has further deposed that due to partition of land in the family the present occurrence has taken place. P.W.-2, Harendra Singh, the informant of this case has supported the prosecution case as narrated above. P.W.-3, Rekha Devi has been declared hostile during trial. P.W-4, Dr. Ashok Kumar Pandey, who is the doctor and had examined the informant, has deposed that oval shaped wound injury below the neck, i.e., 0.6 cm X 0.4 cm was found on the informant. P.W-5, Sambhunath Panday, the Investigating Officer of this case has supported the case of the prosecution. 12. It also appears that there is delay of six days in lodging the FIR. The delay is sought to be explained by treatment at PMCH. It seems that neither the treatment record at PMCH nor the version provided at PMCH has been brought on record thus making the initial version unavailable. This casts shadow of doubt on the prosecution version in view of Hon'ble Supreme Court decision rendered in the case of Thulia Kali vs. The State of Tamil Nadu reported in (1972) 3 SCC 393." Being aggrieved with the trial court's judgment of conviction and order of sentence, the appellant had preferred the appeal before the High Court. 
 


Saturday, November 22, 2025

Application for bail of Child in Conflict with Law (CICL) cannot be rejected on the ground of heinous offence: Justice Bibek Chaudhuri

In Juvenile “X”, through His Natural Guardian His Father Namely, Ashok Mistry @ Ashok Mistri vs. The State of Bihar (2024) which was adjudicated along with 24 similar cases from Gaya, Rohtas, Patna, Aurangabad, Supaul, East Champaran, West Champaran, Kaimur, Katihar, Vaishali, Banka, Saran, Muzaffarpur and Sitamarhi, Justice Bibek Chaudhuri of the High Court had delivered a 33-page long judgement wherein he underlined that Juvenile Justice Boards (JJBs) and the Courts of Appeal cannot deal with the applications for bail and connected appeals on the consideration that the offences committed by the petitioners are heinous offences. 

Justice Chaudhuri concluded: "Both the Boards and the Courts of Appeal must be free from this mind set that an application for bail of CICL cannot be rejected on the ground of heinous offence. At the same time, the Board and the Courts of Appeal shall remain alive to impose conditions for bail in the manner through which the future of CICL is protected. He may be kept under the supervision and guidance of a proper person so that he may not come in association of known criminals or that the order of bail expose him to moral, physical or psychological danger or it will defeat ends of justice. For the reasons stated above, I am inclined to allow these batch of revision on contest. The petitioners / CICLs shall be released on bail....." 

Justice Chaudhuri's direction reads:"Let a copy of this judgement be transmitted by the Registry of this Court to all the District Judges within two weeks for circulation to all the Juvenile Justice Boards and Children’s Courts, constituted under the said Act (Act 2 of 2016) for their appraisal as to the mode and manner and the factual and legal consideration while granting or rejecting a prayer for bail or connected Appeal under the said Act. Office is directed to send the email of this order to the respective Courts." 

He drew on the decision of a Co-ordinate Bench of the Allahabad High Court in Juvenile X through his father vs. State of U. P. and Anr., reported in 2021 SCC Online All 1091, which had succinctly dealt with the requirement to be followed by the Probation Officer while filing Social Investigation Report. The relevant paragraph 19 of the judgement reads: "‘Form-6’ of The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Model Rules, 2016, contains a detailed proforma of the social investigation report. The report has three parts; the first part requires the Probation Officer to give the data or information regarding the close relatives in the family, delinquency records of the family, social and economic status, ethical code of the family, attitude towards religion, relationship amongst the family members, the relationship with the parents, living conditions etc. Thereafter, the report requires the Probation Officer to provide the child's history regarding his mental condition, physical condition, habits, interests, personality traits, neighbourhood, neighbours’ report, and school, employment, if any, friends, the child being subject to any form of abuse, circumstances of apprehension of the child, mental condition of the child. The most important part of the report is the third part i.e. the result of inquiry where the Probation Officer is required to inform the Board about the emotional factors, physical condition, intelligence, social and economic factors, suggestive cause of the problems, analysis of the case including reasons/contributing factors for the offence, opinion of experts consulted and recommendation regarding rehabilitation by the Probation Officer/Child Welfare Officer. It is incumbent upon the Juvenile Justice Board to take into consideration the social investigation report and make an objective assessment of the reasonable grounds for rejecting the bail application of the juvenile.” Justice Chaudhary inadvertently referred to para 23 instead of para 19 of the Allahabad High Court's judgement dated October 1, 2024 in Criminal Revision No. 611 of 2023.   

Thursday, November 13, 2025

Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad led Division Bench directs I.G. Prisons and Correctional Services, Bihar, to issue appropriate guidelines to all Jail Superintendents to abide by Constitutional Mandate against unauthorized detention

High Court awards a consolidated amount of Rs. 2 lakh to the petitioner by way of compensation for his unauthorized detention by the Jail Superintendent, Central Jail, Gaya Jee 

In Neeraj Kumar @ Neeraj Singh Vs. The State of Bihar through the Principal Secretary (Home), Police Department, Bihar (2025), Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad and Sourendra Pandey delivered a 12-page long judgement dated November 13, 2025, wherein, it concluded:"Having considered the entire materials and the submissions as recorded hereinabove, we are of the considered opinion that a consolidated amount of Rs.2,00,000/- (Rupees Two Lakhs) would be a reasonable amount which may be awarded to the petitioner by way of compensation for his unauthorized detention by the Jail Superintendent, Central Jail, Gaya Jee. 12. Since we have come to know that this practice is going on in other jurisdictions of the Jail Superintendents in the State, the I.G., Prisons and Correctional Services is directed to issue appropriate guidelines to all the Jail Superintendents in the State of Bihar requiring them to strictly abide by the Constitutional Mandate and order of the Court without any exception. Such guideline shall be issued within a period of two weeks from today. The Respondent State of Bihar shall pay the compensation amount of Rs.2,00,000/- (Rupees Two Lakhs) to the petitioner within one month from today. Following the settled principle as discussed in the case of K.K. Pathak (supra), we direct that the amount so paid to the petitioner shall be realized from the erring official in accordance with law." Pranav Kumar, I.G. Prisons and Correctional Services, Bihar, the respondent no.3 was present through virtual mode during the hearing. 

The other nine respondents were:Director General of Police, Bihar, Inspector General of Prisons and Correctional Services, Bihar, Jail Superintendent , Central Jail District-Gaya, Deputy Jailor, Central Jail, District-Gaya, Senior Superintendent of Police, District-Gaya, SHO Sarbahda Police Station, District-Saran, District Magistrate, Gaya, Senior Superintendent of Police, Gaya and Officer-in-Charge, Sarbahda P.S., District- Gaya.

This writ application was taken up for consideration on November 12, 2025. The writ application raised an issue of serious concern for a Constitutional Court. It is well said that a Constitutional Court acts as a guardian to protect the fundamental rights of a citizen when it comes to protect his Right to Life and Liberty. In the case, the petitioner was confined in the Central Jail at Gaya Jee in connection with Sarbahda P.S. Case of 2025 registered on July 31, 2025 for the offences punishable under Section 30(a) and 37 of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016. In the said case, he was granted bail vide order dated September 23, 2025 by the competent Court and the Exclusive Special Excise Judge, Court No. 2, Gaya Jee issued a warrant to release him unless he is liable to be detained for some other matter. The warrant of release dated September 29, 2025 was communicated to the Superintendent, Central Jail at Gaya Jee.What happened thereafter are some disturbing features of this case. It appears that prior to receipt of the warrant to release, the Superintendent of Jail, Gaya Jee had received a production warrant from the court of learned Chief Judicial Magistrate, Buxar requiring production of the petitioner in connection with Buxar P.S. Case No. 87 of 2025. The counter affidavit filed on behalf of Respondent Nos. 1, 3, 4 and 5 has been filed enclosing certain documents. Annexure ‘R-1/B’ is the order requiring production of the petitioner in the court of learned Chief Judicial Magistrate, Buxar (Bihar) on 04.09.2025 by 10:00 AM as he was involved in a case of theft punishable under Section 303(2) of the Bhartiya Nyay Sanhita. Despite receipt of the production warrant, the Superintendent of Jail, Gaya Jee did not produce the petitioner in the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate Court at Buxar on 04.09.2025. 

The counter affidavit to show that the Superintendent of Jail, Gaya Jee informed the learned court of Exclusive Special Judge, Excise, 2nd Gaya Jee, the Senior Superintendent of Police, Gaya Jee and the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate, Buxar with regard to the requirement to produce the petitioner in the light of the production warrant. The Superintendent of Jail was looking for adequate force and vehicle with fuel from the Senior Superintendent of Police, Gaya Jee in order to produce the petitioner in Buxar Court. The respondents have not brought on record any other communication by way of response from the office of the Senior Superintendent of Police, Gaya Jee. It is also not clear whether the court at Gaya Jee was moved for seeking an order to take the petitioner to Buxar Court. The fact remains that even after his release order, the petitioner continued in detention.

The attention of the High Court was drawn towards the communication as contained in letter dated 06.10.2025 written by the Superintendent of Central Jail, Gaya Jee to the Senior Superintendent of Police, Gaya Jee wherein he has clearly recorded that after receipt of the release order from the local court, the petitioner has been released but had been kept confined on the strength of a production warrant. It is to be kept in mind that the date fixed in the production warrant was 04.09.2025 which had already expired. This is why it has also been submitted on behalf of the petitioner that in terms of Section 304 read with Section 305 of the Bhartiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, once the date fixed in the production warrant expired and the order of release had already reached in the hand of the Superintendent of Central Jail, Gaya Jee, he had no option but to release the petitioner. It is pointed out that prior to receipt of the release order, the present authority could have requested the Buxar Court to issue a fresh warrant of production and the petitioner could have been produced on the strength of a fresh warrant of production before receipt of the release order. It was submitted that, in fact, in his communication dated 06.10.2025, the Superintendent, Central Jail made a wrong statement that after receipt of the release order, the petitioner was already released. His own statement in the said letter that the petitioner was still kept confined in the jail on the strength of the production warrant demonstrates that the continued detention of the petitioner was not authorized by any competent court of law, thus, his confinement in jail is in breach of the fundamental right of the petitioner. He was kept in jail for days even after release without there being any order of a competent court.

The Court noted the submission of P.N. Sharma, AC to AG that perhaps, this practice was an ongoing practice, though, it was not placed on affidavit and he has no specific instruction in his regard but what was gathered from his experience at the Bar as an Officer of the Court perhaps, this was the practice which is being followed.

AC to AG further submitted that prima-facie, it cannot be denied that the petitioner was not actually released from jail even after the receipt of the release order. He was produced in Buxar Court only on 17.10.2025. During the intervening period, there was no authorized detention of the petitioner.

Justice Prasad observed:"....this Court has no iota of doubt that in this case, the life and liberty of the petitioner has been curtailed to a great extent by keeping him in confinement for 18 days without any authorized detention order from a competent court of law. This Court is further disturbed from the fact that perhaps the same thing is happening as a matter of practice in the State of Bihar. This is a wider issue. While holding that the action of the State respondents in not releasing the petitioner actually from jail and keeping him confined in jail for 18 days without any authorized detention order is wholly illegal and is to be held as a breach of the fundamental right of the petitioner, we propose to award adequate compensation to the petitioner for his illegal detention and such compensation would be required to be realized from the erring official. It is wellsettled in law that if because of misuse of power by an executive/officer acting on behalf of the State, any compensation is required to be allowed to a citizen, such compensation should not go from the public exchequer, rather such money should be realized from the erring official.

The High Court noted that AC to AG informed that the petitioner was made to appear virtually before the In-charge, Chief Judicial Magistrate, Buxar on 04.10.2025 and he had been remanded to custody until 17.10.2025. Thus, his submission is that, in fact, it is not 18 days confinement without any authorized detention order, the actual unauthorized detention would come down to five days if counted from 29.09.2025 which was the date of the receipt of the release order of the petitioner in Sarbahda P.S. Case No. 91 of 2025.

Pranav Kumar, I.G., Prisons and Correctional Services submitted that on perusal of the entire records, he noticed that the petitioner was confined in jail even after September 29, 2025 without there being any order of a competent court of law, according to him, this was occasioned due to the intervening Durga Puja Holidays. The High Court, pointed out to him that even during Durga Puja Holidays, an In-charge Court was always available for this purpose and, in fact, the virtual appearance of the petitioner was done on October 4, 2025 which was during the Puja Holidays only, therefore, it cannot be allowed to be contend that the illegal detention of the petitioner from September 29, 2025 until his virtual production on October 4, 2025 was due to any reason beyond the control of the Jail Superintendent, Central Jail, Gaya Jee. The I.G., Prisons and Correctional Services was immediately realised this and was admitted that “Yes, there is an illegal detention for atleast five days”. 

Justice Prasad observed: "7. There being an admitted position that it is a case of unauthorized detention of the petitioner from 29.09.2025 until 04.10.2025 and this practice is going on without drawing much attention of the Department, this Court being a Constitutional Court cannot remain a silent spectator. The I.G., Prisons and Correctional Services has informed this Court that he has taken action against the Jail Superintendent, Central Jail, Gaya Jee in administrative side and will take it to a logical end, however, keeping in view the admitted facts of the case as we have already held that it is a case of illegal detention, we proceed to award compensation to the petitioner."

The judgement reads: "8. On the quantum of compensation, we have invited even I.G., Prisons and Correctional Services to say as to what would be a reasonable amount of compensation to the petitioner. He has submitted that a sum of Rs.10,000/- may perhaps be appropriate. Learned AC to AG has submitted that the Court should take a lenient view of the matter and a sum of Rs.10,000/-for each day of detention would be an appropriate amount of compensation."

The judgement recorded that the counsel for the petitioner vehemently submitted that the quantum of compensation to be fixed by the High Court should not be an indicative and symbolic one. "It is a matter in which admittedly, the liberty of the petitioner has been curtailed without following the established procedure of law, therefore, a clear case of violation of the Constitutional mandate under Article 21 of the Constitution of India has been made out. It is submitted that in such cases, in fact, the Government should have a policy to award ex-gratia compensation to an illegal detenue and such amount which are required to be paid to a person for his illegal detention be realised from the erring official so that the Public Exchequer which is the Custodian of public money should not be burdened with cost and compensation. He has relied upon a judgment of a learned Writ Court in case of K.K. Pathak @ Keshav Kumar Pathak Vs. Ravi Shankar Prasad and Others reported in 2019 (1) PLJR 1051 in which this principle has been discussed. It has also been pointed out that an appeal preferred against this judgment of the learned Writ Court in SLP (Crl) No. 003566/2019 before the Hon’ble Supreme Court did not succeed and the same was dismissed vide order dated 26.04.2019."

The counsel for the petitioner had prayed for an adequate compensation which according to him should not be less than Rs.1,00,000/- (Rupees One Lakh) per day. He had relied upon a 9-page long judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Pankaj Kumar Sharma vs. Government of NCT of Delhi & Others reported in 2023 SCC OnLine Del 6215 in which a Writ Court of Delhi High Court's Justice Subramonium Prasad was pleased to award a compensation of Rs.50,000/- to the petitioner for his illegal detention for about half an hour. 

The Delhi High Court relied on the judgement of the Supreme Court in D. K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal, 1997 (1) SCC 416, wherein it had directed the following requirements to be fulfilled in case of arrest. Paragraph 35 of the said judgment (D.K. Basu) reads as under:-

“35. We, therefore, consider it appropriate to issue the following requirements to be followed in all cases of arrest or detention till legal provisions are made in that behalf as preventive measures:

(1) The police personnel carrying out the arrest and handling the interrogation of the arrestee should bear accurate, visible and clear identification and name tags with their designations. The particulars of all such police personnel who handle interrogation of the arrestee must be recorded in a register.

(2) That the police officer carrying out the arrest of the arrestee shall prepare a memo of arrest at the time of W.P.(C) 3851/2023 Page 4 of 9 arrest and such memo shall be attested by at least one witness, who may either be a member of the family of the arrestee or a respectable person of the locality from where the arrest is made. It shall also be countersigned by the arrestee and shall contain the time and date of arrest.

(3) A person who has been arrested or detained and is being held in custody in a police station or interrogation centre or other lock-up, shall be entitled to have one friend or relative or other person known to him or having interest in his welfare being informed, as soon as practicable, that he has been arrested and is being detained at the particular place, unless the attesting witness of the memo of arrest is himself such a friend or a relative of the arrestee.

(4) The time, place of arrest and venue of custody of an arrestee must be notified by the police where the next friend or relative of the arrestee lives outside the district or town through the Legal Aid Organisation in the District and the police station of the area concerned telegraphically within a period of 8 to 12 hours after the arrest.

(5) The person arrested must be made aware of this right to have someone informed of his arrest or detention as soon as he is put under arrest or is detained.

(6) An entry must be made in the diary at the place of detention regarding the arrest of the person which shall also disclose the name of the next friend of the person who has been informed of the arrest and the names and particulars of the police officials in whose custody the arrestee is.

(7) The arrestee should, where he so requests, be also W.P.(C) 3851/2023 Page 5 of 9 examined at the time of his arrest and major and minor injuries, if any present on his/her body, must be recorded at that time. The “Inspection Memo” must be signed both by the arrestee and the police officer effecting the arrest and its copy provided to the arrestee.

(8) The arrestee should be subjected to medical examination by a trained doctor every 48 hours during his detention in custody by a doctor on the panel of approved doctors appointed by Director, Health Services of the State or Union Territory concerned. Director, Health Services should prepare such a panel for all tehsils and districts as well.

(9) Copies of all the documents including the memo of arrest, referred to above, should be sent to the Illaqa Magistrate for his record.

(10) The arrestee may be permitted to meet his lawyer during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation.

(11) A police control room should be provided at all district and State headquarters, where information regarding the arrest and the place of custody of the arrestee shall be communicated by the officer causing the arrest, within 12 hours of effecting the arrest and at the police control room it should be displayed on a conspicuous notice board. “

The Delhi High Court emphasised the Supreme Court’s observations in Para 44 in D K Basu (supra) also observed as under (Para 11):-

44. The claim in public law for compensation for unconstitutional deprivation of fundamental right to life and liberty, the protection of which is guaranteed under the Constitution, is a claim based on strict liability and is in addition to the claim available in private law for damages for tortious acts of the public servants. Public law proceedings serve a different purpose than the private law proceedings. Award of compensation for established infringement of the indefeasible rights guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution is a remedy available in public law since the purpose of public law is not only to civilise public power but also to assure the citizens that they live under a legal system wherein their rights and interests shall be protected and preserved. Grant of compensation in proceedings under Article 32 or Article 226 of the Constitution of India for the established violation of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 21, is an exercise of the courts under the public law jurisdiction for penalising the wrongdoer and fixing the liability for the public wrong on the State which failed in the discharge of its public duty to protect the fundamental rights of the citizen.

The Delhi High Court judgement also relied on the Nilabati Behera case [(1993) 2 SCC 746 : 1993 SCC (Cri) 527 : 1993 Cri LJ 2899] in which heirs of a victim of custodial torture were granted compensation.

  1. In Nilabati Behera case [(1993) 2 SCC 746 : 1993 SCC (Cri) 527 : 1993 Cri LJ 2899] , it was held: (SCC pp. 767-68, para 32) “

Adverting to the grant of relief to the heirs of a victim W.P.(C) 3851/2023 Page 7 of 9 of custodial death for the infraction or invasion of his rights guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, it is not always enough to relegate him to the ordinary remedy of a civil suit to claim damages for the tortious act of the State as that remedy in private law indeed is available to the aggrieved party.

The citizen complaining of the infringement of the indefeasible right under Article 21 of the Constitution cannot be told that for the established violation of the fundamental right to life, he cannot get any relief under the public law by the courts exercising writ jurisdiction. The primary source of the public law proceedings stems from the prerogative writs and the courts have, therefore, to evolve „new tools‟ to give relief in public law by moulding it according to the situation with a view to preserve and protect the Rule of Law.

While concluding his first Hamlyn Lecture in 1949 under the title „Freedom under the Law‟ Lord Denning in his own style warned: „No one can suppose that the executive will never be guilty of the sins that are common to all of us. You may be sure that they will sometimes do things which they ought not to do: and will not do things that they ought to do.

But if and when wrongs are thereby suffered by any of us what is the remedy? Our procedure for securing our personal freedom is efficient, our procedure for preventing the abuse of power is not. Just as the pick and shovel is no longer suitable for the winning of coal, so also the procedure of mandamus, certiorari, and actions on the case are not suitable for the winning of freedom in the new age.

They must be replaced by new and up-to-date machinery, by declarations, injunctions and actions for negligence…. This is not the task of Parliament … the courts must do this. Of all the great tasks that lie ahead this is the greatest.

Properly exercised the new powers of the executive W.P.(C) 3851/2023 Page 8 of 9 lead to the welfare state; but abused they lead to a totalitarian state. None such must ever be allowed in this country.‟ 

The Delhi High Court judgement, also relied on Nilabati Behera v. State of Orisa & Ors., 1993 (2) SCC 746, while dealing with the power of a constitutional court to award compensation rather than relegating such person to file a suit for recovery of damages, the Supreme Court observed as under:- (Para 12)

“22. The above discussion indicates the principle on which the court’s power under Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution is exercised to award monetary compensation for contravention of a fundamental right. This was indicated in Rudul Sah [(1983) 4 SCC 141 : 1983 SCC (Cri) 798 : (1983) 3 SCR 508] and certain further observations therein adverted to earlier, which may tend to minimise the effect of the principle indicated therein, do not really detract from that principle. This is how the decisions of this Court in Rudul Sah [(1983) 4 SCC 141 : 1983 SCC (Cri) 798 : (1983) 3 SCR 508] and others in that line have to be understood and Kasturilal [(1965) 1 SCR 375 : AIR 1965 SC 1039 : (1965) 2 Cri LJ 144] distinguished therefrom.

We have considered this question at some length in view of the doubt raised, at times, about the propriety of awarding compensation in such proceedings, instead of directing the claimant to resort to the ordinary process of recovery of damages by recourse to an action in tort. In the present case, on the finding reached, it is a clear case for award of compensation to the petitioner for the custodial death of her son.”

It was submitted that the High Court has recently in the case of Arvind Kumar Gupta vs. State of Bihar and Others reported in 2025 (6) BLJ 52 dealt with this aspect of the matter, though, in case of illegal arrest resulting in unauthorized detention and has been pleased to award Rs.1,00,000/- to each of the Respondents Nos. 9 and 11 for their unauthorized detention in police custody. 

The attention of the High Court was drawn towards the judgment in Arvind Kumar Gupta (supra) which we quote hereunder for a ready reference:-“27. In the case of Rudal Sah vs. State of Bihar and Another reported in AIR 1983 SC 1086 while dealing with a case of unlawful detention in jail, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has held: “...In these circumstances, the refusal of this court to pass an order of compensation in favour of the petitioner will be doing mere lipservice to his fundamental right to liberty which the State Government has so grossly violated.”

The High Court held that in Pankaj Kumar Sharma vs. Government of NCT of Delhi & Ors. reported in 2023 SCC OnLine Del 6215, a Single Judge of the Delhi High Court had reviewed the case laws on the subject and upon finding that the petitioner was made to suffer in the lockup for only half an hour, the Single Judge directed for payment of compensation of Rs.50,000/- to the petitioner recoverable from the salaries of Respondent Nos. 4 and 5 who were the erring officials. Having regard to the well settled law on the subject, in the admitted facts of this case where these police officials have contravened the procedures and thereby caused injustice to Respondent Nos. 9 and 11 by keeping them in police custody without any sanction of law, we are of the considered opinion that Respondent Nos. 9 and 11 both are entitled for a compensation of Rs.1,00,000/- (Rupees One Lakh) each. The State shall be liable to pay Rs.1,00,000/- to each of Respondent Nos. 9 and 11 within a period of 30 days from today and recover the same from Respondent Nos. 7, 8 and 12 who have admitted the violation of the fundamental rights of Respondent Nos. 9 and 11 by not complying with the established procedure of law. It is well-settled that for any misuse of power by an officer of the State, if the State is being saddled with cost or compensation, the same be recovered from the erring officials. Reference in this regard may be made to the judgment of this Court in the case of K.K. Pathak @ Keshav Kumar Pathak vs. Ravi Shankar Prasad and Others reported in 2019 (1) PLJR 1051 which attained finality as the same has not been interfered with by the Supreme Court in SLP (Crl) No. 003566/2019.

Justice Prasad observed:"11. Having considered the entire materials and the submissions as recorded hereinabove, we are of the considered opinion that a consolidated amount of Rs.2,00,000/- (Rupees Two Lakhs) would be a reasonable amount which may be awarded to the petitioner by way of compensation for his unauthorized detention by the Jail Superintendent, Central Jail, Gaya Jee."

Also readFate of a Habeas Corpus petition, after disposal of the case by High Court, CBI finds Rajnath Sharma, the "absconding person" was killed, burnt in police custody

 

Wednesday, October 15, 2025

Justice G. Anupama Chakravarthy asks petitioner to avail alternative remedy by filing representation under Bihar Targeted Public Distribution System (Control) Order, 2016

In Raj Kishore Pandey vs. The State of Bihar through the Principal Secretary, Food and Consumer Protection Department, Government of Bihar & Ors. (2025), Justice G. Anupama Chakravarthy passed a 5-page long judgement dated October 15, 2025 and disposed off the writ petition. The judgement reads: ''5. Admittedly, from the reliefs prayed for in the writ petition, it is evident that the petitioner has an alternative remedy of filing a representation available under Section 32(vii) of the Bihar Targeted Public Distribution System (Control) Order, 2016....the writ petition is disposed of with a direction to the petitioner to file the representation within two months from the date of receipt of this order before the Principal Secretary.'' The five other respondents were: Divisional Commissioner, Tirhut Division,Muzaffarpur, District Magistrate cum Collector, East Champaran at Motihari, Sub-Divisional Officer, chakiya ,East Champaran at Motihari,  District Supply Officer, East Champaran at Motihari and Block Supply Officer, Chakiya(East Champaran).

The writ petition was filed for the following reliefs:-
“(i) To issue an appropriate order/s, direction/s including writ preferably in the nature of CERTIORARI for quashing the order dated December 18, 2018 passed in P.D.S. Revision Case passed by Divisional Commissioner Tirhut Division Muzaffarpur, the Respondent no. 2  whereby he dismissed the PDS Revision Case and held that order dated June 1, 2015 passed by the Sub-Divisional Officer Chakiya East Champaran and order dated January 13, 2017 passed by the Collector East Champaran in S. Appeal Case cancelling the license of the petitioner bearing PDS License were speaking orders and there was no illegality in the order by the lower Court. (ii) To quash the Memo dated June 1, 2015 passed by the S.D.O Chakiya East Champaran whereby and whereunder PDS License of the petitioner was cancelled.
(iii) To quash the order dated January 13, 2017 passed in Appeal Case by the Collector whereby and whereunder appeal preferred by the Petitioner was dismissed and affirmed the order Passed by the S.D.O. Chakiya.
(iv) To direct Sub-Divisional Officer, Chakiya ,East Champaran at Motihari, the Respondent no. 04 to restore the license of the petitioner hence forth.

The counsel for the respondents drew the attention of the High Court towards Section 32 (vii) of the Bihar Targeted Public Distribution System (Control) Order, 2016. Section 32 (vii) of the Bihar Targeted Public Distribution System (Control) Order, 2016 reads: “32. (vii) The Principal Secretary/ Secretary of the department may call for the records related to the order passed under the provisions of this Order by the Divisional Commissioner or the District Officer or the licensing authority or the Sub Divisional Officer suo moto or upon a representation by someone, and if he is satisfied that the Divisional Commissioner or the District Officer or the licensing authority or the Sub Divisional Officer (a) has exercised such powers which are not entrusted to him, (b) has exercised his powers illegally without considering the facts of the case, (c) has failed in use of his powers, he may pass an order which he thinks fit.”

It was one of the five judgements delivered by Justice Chakravarthy on October 15, 2025, wherein, she directed the petitioners to avail alternative remedy under the relevant laws. Besides Raj Kishore Pandey vs. The State of Bihar, these judgements were delivered in Vandna Devi vs. The State of Bihar, Javahar Prasad @ Jawahar Prasad vs. The State of Bihar, Dinesh Kapar vs. The Collector and Lakshman Sharma @ Lakshman Mandal vs. The State of Bihar.


Tuesday, September 2, 2025

As part of Division Bench Justice S. B. Pd. Singh authored all judgments dated September 2

Patna High Court's Division Bench of Acting Chief Justice P. B. Bajanthri and Justice S. B. Pd. Singh delivered seven judgements on September 2, 2025.All the judgements dated September 2 by this bench were authored by Justice Singh. 

In Bibek Kumar Jaiswal @ Vivek Kumar Jaiswal vs. Shabnam Jaiswal @ Sabnam Jaiswal (2025), a case from Supaul, Justice Singh held that Family Court rightly dismissed the matrimonial case of the appellant seeking divorce. 

In Nilu Kumari vs. Sanjay Kumar (2025), a case from Hajipur, Justice Singh set  aside the judgement and decree by Principal Judge, Family Court, Vaishali. 

In Shashi Bhushan Poddar vs. Gyan Bharti @ Rekha Poddar & Anr. (2025), a case from Bhagalpur, Justice Singh upheld Family Court's judgement and decree which dismissed the matrimonial case of the appellant seeking divorce. 

In Arun Kumar vs. Sushmita Kumari (2025), a case from Begusarai, Justice Singh set aside judgment and decree by Principal Judge, Family Court, Begusarai, which had dismissed the divorce case. 

In Md. Naushad Hussain vs. Shahida Khaton & Anr. (2025), a case from Darbhanga, Justice Singh concluded:"Considering the fact that Talaq has already been performed between the parties and in the entire evidence, the appellant-husband has not denied the aforesaid assertion of the respondent and the respondent herself does not want to continue matrimonial relationship with the appellant-husband, we are not inclined to interference with the impugned judgment. The Family Court has rightly dismissed the Matrimonial Case No. 209 of 2012 filed on behalf of the appellant husband."   

In Pramod Pasi vs. The State of Bihar through Secretary Excise and Prohibition Department Govt. of Bihar & Ors. (2025), a case from Gopalganj, the Court recorded that the recovery of illicit liquor was only 7.8 litres which is a meager quantity. Justice Singh concluded:"Considering the small quantity of liquor, the concerned authority is hereby directed to collect fine of Rs. 10,000/-(Ten Thousands) from the petitioner and release the motorcycle in his favour within a period of one week from the date of receipt of this order, for which petitioner has no objection." He observed: "We are conscious of the fact that alleged recovery is meager quantity and the aforesaid order has been passed while invoking extra ordinary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India for the reasons that unnecessarily petitioner shall not be subjected to various proceedings like Rule of 12A of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021 read with amended sub Rule 2 of Rule 12A in the year 2022 and 2023, Sections 58, 92 and 93 of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016, for an issue of 7.8 litres of illicit liquor and such order is required to prevent the multiplicity of proceeding in the interest of justice."

In Yogendra Yadav vs, The State of Bihar through the Principal Secretary, Bihar Prohibition and Excise Department, Bihar & Ors. (2025), a case from Gaya, Justice Singh took note of the fact that the recovery of illicit liquor was only 1 litre which is a meager quantity. He observed: "Considering the small quantity of liquor, the concerned authority is hereby directed to collect fine of Rs. 5,000/-(Five Thousands) from the petitioner and release the motorcycle in his favour within a period of one week from the date of receipt of this order, for which petitioner has no objection." He added: We are conscious of the fact that alleged recovery is meager quantity and the aforesaid order has been passed while invoking extra ordinary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India for the reasons that unnecessarily petitioner shall not be subjected to various proceedings like Rule of 12A of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021 read with amended sub Rule 2 of Rule 12A in the year 2022 and 2023, Sections 58, 92 and 93 of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016, for an issue of 1 litre of illicit liquor and such order is required to prevent the multiplicity of proceeding in the interest of justice."

Notably, a 17-page long judgement dated September 1, 2025 by the same Division Bench had set aside the judgment and decree dated February 25, 2019 passed by the Principal Judge, Family Court, Gopalganj. This judgement too was authored by Justice Singh.  

 

Tuesday, August 19, 2025

Supreme Court to examine validity of Section 58 of Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 read with specific Rules

In The State of Bihar & Ors. vs. Shankar Baranwal (2025), Supreme Court's bench of Chief Justice B.R.Gavai. Justice K. Vinod Chandran and Justice N.V. Anjaria passed an order dated August 9, 2025. It issued notice as it is all set to to examine validity of Section 58 of Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 read with Rules 12 A and 12 B of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021. Its order reads:"Until further orders, there shall be stay insofar as the direction issued by the High Court to make the payment by the valuer is concerned. The case arose out of impugned 7-pag long final judgment and order dated April 16, 2025 in Shankar Baranwal vs. The State of Bihar & Ors. (2025) passed by the Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices P. B. Bajanthri and S. B. Pd. Singh. 

The High Court's judgement was authored by Justice Bajanthri. The petitioner had prayed for issuance of writ in the nature of certiorari or any other appropriate writ, order or direction for quashing the order dated January 17, 2022 passed in Excise Revision Case No. 282/2021 by Additional Chief Secretary, Bihar, Patna whereby and whereunder the order dated September 10, 2021, passed in Excise Appeal Case No. 523/2021 by the Commissioner, Excise, Patna and order dated July 17, 2021, passed in Confiscation Case NO. 118/2021 by the District Magistrate, Kaimur at Bhabua, which arose out of Durgawati P.S. Case No. 74/2020 have been confirmed and Safari car bearing Registration No. UP-60V-0160 of the petitioner was confiscated and also for giving direction to release the aforesaid vehicle of the petitioner. 

Justice Bajanthri observed: "It is to be noted not even reference to value of the vehicle purchased and depreciation year wise with reference to any policy or the Government or General Insurance Company. In the absence of assessment and randomly evaluation of vehicle in wholesale is highly deprecated. Irrespective of movable and immovable property cannot be valued with the naked eye by the bureaucrats of the State of Bihar and proceed to undertake auction and causing the state exchequer under loss and for the concerned person. In almost each and every case Motor Vehicle Inspectors are evaluating valuation of the vehicle in wholesale without there being individual assessment of the vehicle or property with reference to evaluation like date of purchase and value of what would be value as on the date of seizure of the vehicle and on the date of auction. 5. Having regard to the facts that one liter of liquor has been seized from the subject matter of vehicle, petitioner shall not be penalized in seizing vehicle and auctioning the vehicle at throw away price and realised amount remitting arbitrary and illegal." 

In the light of these observations, the High Court concluded: "the confiscation order, appellate authority order and revision authority order stands modified to the above extent, while exercising extra ordinary jurisdiction under article 226 of constitution", in order to avoid further legal proceedings. 

Friday, June 27, 2025

Supreme Court stays fresh tender process approved by High Court's Acting Chief Justice led bench

In Medicare Environmental Management Pvt. Ltd.vs. State of Bihar & Ors. (2025), the Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices Prashant Kumar Mishra and Augustine George Masih issued notice, returnable within eight weeks. Its order dated June 3, 2025 reads:"In the meanwhile, further tender process shall remain subject to the outcome of the present special leave petition." This implies that the judgement of the Patna High Court's Division Bench of Acting Chief Justice Ashutosh Kumar and Justice Partha Sarthy which approved the fresh tender process has been stayed. 

The Division Bench had heard both the writ petitions filed by Medicare Environmental Management Pvt. Ltd and Sangam Mediserve Pvt. Ltd. who had prayed for setting aside the order dated June 26, 2023 issued under the signature of the Member Secretary, Bihar State Pollution Control Board (BSPCB), Patna, whereby the entire tender dated December 22, 2022, for all the seven locations was cancelled despite the respondents/Board having issued the letter of selection for locations at Muzaffarpur and Bhagalpur in favour of Medicare Environmental Management Pvt. Ltd. and for locations Gopalganj and Purnia in favour of M/s Sangam Mediserve Pvt. Ltd.  The High Court had dismissed both the writ petitions by its 26-page long judgement dated May 7, 2025.

The tender was issued because the BSPCB was of the view that there was need for setting up seven Common Bio-Medical Waste Treatment Facility (CBWTF), one each in Patna, Gopalganj, Madhubani, Purnia, Sasaram, Muzaffarpur and Bhagalpur in accordance with the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016. BSPCB took the decision to cancel the entire tender as it was a composite tender (one tender for all the seven locations) and issued fresh tender for each of the locations and not a composite tender. Both the petitioners have challenged the decision as being arbitrary, unreasonable and based on no logic. They have submitted that before cancelling the entire tender, the successful bidders ought to have been issued notice.

One of the two petitioners, Medicare Environmental Management Pvt.  Ltd.  submitted that for one of the
bidders, namely, M/s Sangam Mediserve Pvt. Ltd., the second petitioner having submitted an erroneous and wrongly filled-up financial bid, the entire tender ought not to have been cancelled. The BSPCB had some justification for cancelling the tender with respect to locations at Gopalganj and Purnia, but there would absolutely be no ground for cancelling the entire tender even if it be a composite tender of all the seven locations. 

BSPCB should have segregated the respective tenders and went ahead with the selection of the bidders in whose financial bids there was no problem and which selection was completely unaffected by the wrong bidding of M/s Sangam Mediserve Pvt. Ltd. 

It was submitted that in Government contracts, the authorities are expected to uphold fairness, equality and rule of law while dealing with contractual matters. The “Right to Equality” under Article 14 of the Constitution of India is breached whenever an arbitrary decision is taken. The Court's attention was drawn towards the the decision of the Supreme Court in Mihan India Ltd. vs. GMR Airports Ltd. & Ors. : (2022) 19 SCC 69. In this case, bids were invited for development of a Multi-Model International Passenger Cargo Hub Airport at Nagpur, but before the agreement could be executed with the highest bidder, the bidding process was annulled without any direction for fresh tender process.

The Supreme Court held the view that once the selection of the concessionaire had been declared, then raising objections at the stage of the execution of the concession agreement in the garb of asking clarification with respect to certain formalities, amounted to arbitrary exercise of powers by the authorities, which is not permissible under the law. The Supreme Court relied upon its own judgment in Union of India vs. Dinesh Engineering Corporation : (2001) 8 SCC 491, wherein while dealing with the rejection of the bid of the respondent therein by the Railways in a tender floated for procurement of certain items of spare parts for use in GE governors, the Supreme Court had held that the power to reject bids cannot be exercised arbitrarily; merely because the Railways had the power to do so. Any arbitrary exercise of power to reject bids was held to be violative of Article 14 of the Constitution of India. It was held that held that a public authority, even in contractual matters, should not have unfettered discretion and in contracts having commercial elements. Even though some extra discretion is to be conceded to such authorities. 

In Mihan India Ltd. case, the Supreme Court in para 64 of the decision took note of the decision in City & Industrial Development Corporation of Maharashtra Ltd. vs. Shishir Realty (P) Ltd. : (2002) 16 SCC 527. It reads:“75. Before we state the conclusions, this Court would like to reiterate certain well pertaining to Government contracts. When we speak of Government contracts, constitutional factors are also in play.
Government bodies being public authorities are expected to uphold fairness, equality and rule of law even while dealing with contractual matters. It is a settled principle that right to equality under Article 14 abhors arbitrariness. Public authorities have to ensure that no bias, favouritism or arbitrariness are shown during the bidding process. A transparent bidding process is much favoured by this Court to ensure that constitutional requirements are satisfied.
76. Fairness and the good faith standard ingrained in the contracts entered into by public authorities mandates such public authorities to conduct themselves in a non-arbitrary manner during the performance
of their contractual obligations.
77. The constitutional guarantee against arbitrariness as provided under Article 14, demands the State to act in a fair and reasonable manner unless public interest demands otherwise. However, the degree of
compromise of any private legitimate interest must correspond proportionately to the public interest, so claimed.
78. At this juncture, it is pertinent to remember that, by merely using grounds of public interest or loss to the treasury, the successor public authority cannot undo the work undertaken by the previous authority. Such a claim must be proven using material facts, evidence and figures. If it were otherwise, then there will remain no sanctity in the words and undertaking of the Government. Businessmen will be hesitant to enter Government contract or make any investment in furtherance of the same. Such a practice is counterproductive to the economy and the business environment in general.”

Drawing on this principle, the Supreme Court did not approve of such cancellation of tender in its entirety. 

Justice Kumar who authored the judgement of the Division Bench observed:"In the present set of facts in these two writ petitions, the situation is different." The judgement pointed out that the financial bid of M/s Sangam Mediserve Pvt. Ltd., which was found to be L-1 for two locations, namely, Gopalganj and Purnia, was erroneous. Although for the two locations, namely, Gopalganj and Purnia, there was an alternative of declaring the L-2 for those two locations as L-1 but "This could but have led to spate of litigation as many of the contenders/bidders had participated and offered their bids for number of locations."

The judgement reads:"Since it was a composite tender, any wrong assessment of any one of the bidders to be the lowest or the highest for a particular location would have had a cascading/waterfall effect on all the tenders. In the circumstances and in all fitness of things, it appears that the Bihar Pollution Control Board took a decision of cancelling the entire tender process and re-tendering it. To us, the decision does not appear to be arbitrary or fanciful or imbued with any mala fides." 

Referring to both the petitioners, Justice Kumar observed: "The parties never got an opportunity of any investment and it was only at the threshold stage when the agreement would have been entered into by the successful bidders, that this decision was taken." He concluded: "The reason for cancelling the tender, in its entirety, does not appear to us to be arbitrary or mala fide. Whether it is wise or unwise or that a better option could have been exercised by the respondents/Board has not been addressed by us for the reasons of our limitations of the jurisdiction." 

 

Monday, May 26, 2025

Acting Chief Justice led bench sets aside judgement of Justice Mohit Kumar Shah but does not order return of arms and license

In Md. Kaisar Warsi vs. The State of Bihar Through the Home Secretary & Ors. (2025), Patna High Court's Division Bench of Acting Chief Justice Ashutosh Kumar and Justice Partha Sarthy delivered a 8-page long judgement dated May 12, 2025 setting aside the 13-page long judgement dated September 5, 2023 by Justice Mohit Kumar Shah of the High Court which had upheld orders of District Magistrate, Saharsa and Commissioner, Saharsa regarding cancellation of license under Section 17 of the Arms Act. 

The appellant/writ petitioner was a holder of arms license. On March 19, 2021, he was served with a notice by the District Magistrate, Saharsa asking him to explain within 24 hours as to the number of cartridges purchased and spent for a period of 15 years ranging from 2005 to 2020. It appeared from the notice that in the official records, evidence was available of purchase of 1350 cartridges, the last of the purchases having been made on December 25, 2020. The appellant petitioner replied that over a period of 15 years, the cartridges have been spent on special days as also for checking up the fitness of the weapon and he is in possession of 48 cartridges as on that date. Thereafter, the District Magistrate, Saharsa by his order dated August 5, 2021, assumed that the writ petitioner has violated the condition of not indulging in celebratory firing, cancelled the license of the petitioner. This order was sustained by the appellate authority and both the orders were validated by Justice Shah, the Single Judge of the High Court. The reasoning adopted by him in upholding these orders was that even though proscription on celebratory firing was incorporated in the Arms Act only in the year 2019 but then, an additional condition in the Arms Rules, namely, Sub-Clauses -7, 8 and 9 of Arms Rules of 2016, having been violated, the holder of license lost his right for holding such fire-arm and the District Magistrate, Saharsa was perfectly within his rights to cancel his license under Section 17 of the Arms Act.

The High Court's Division Bench observed:"We are not in agreement with the aforenoted logic and reason provided by the learned Single Judge. Section 17 provides the power to the Licensing Authority to vary the conditions subject to which the license has been granted, except such of them as has been prescribed and may for that purpose require the license holder by a notice in writing to deliver up the license to it within such time as may be specified in the notice. A Licensing Authority may, by order in writing suspend a license for any such period which he thinks fit or revoke a license. If the Licensing Authority is satisfied that the holder of the license is prohibited by the Arms Act or by any other law for the time being in force from acquiring, possessing or carrying any arms or ammunition or is of unsound mind or is for any other reason unfit for a license or if it is necessary for the security of the public peace or for public safety to suspend or revoke the license or if the license was obtained by fraud and suppression of material information or if any of the conditions of the license has been contravened. The license could also be revoked or suspended if a license holder fails to comply with the notice under Section 17 requiring him to deliver up the license. It appears that none of these conditions were available for the cancellation of license of the appellant /writ petitioner."

The Bench further observed:"We are also surprised at the contents of the notice given to the appellant asking him to explain within 24 hours, on day to day basis for fifteen years the details of the occasions on which the cartridges purchased by him were spent. We have perused the reply furnished by the appellant, which does not specifically admits of the appellant having spent the cartridges on celebratory firing after 2019. All that the explanation discloses is that 1350 cartridges were acquired over a long period of time from different sources under the license and were spent on special days as also for the purposes of checking the fitness of the weapon so that it is not rendered unfit by disuse. Based on the aforenoted explanation, a police report was called for from the Superintendent of Police, wherein also, no adverse report came against the appellant. Without any further notice to the appellant to deliver up his license and the fire arm and intimating him the reason for proceeding to cancel his license, the license was cancelled only on the ground of having used the weapon for celebratory firing."

Although Justice Shah noted that the proscription of celebratory firing was brought into the statute from the year 2019, he only relied upon three of the clauses, namely, 7, 8 and 9 of Arms Rules of 2016 to justify the order of cancellation of license and its validation by the appellate authority.

Notably, it was recorded in the Justice Shah's judgement that the petitioner had submitted that prior to the amendment of the Arms Act, 1959, which came into effect from December 14, 2019, celebratory firing was not prohibited. It was also submitted that only with effect from that day, Section 25 of the Arms Act, 1959 was amended and sub-section (9) was added thereto, which reads as follows:-
“(9) Whoever uses firearm in a rash or negligent manner or in celebratory gunfire so as to endanger human life or personal safety of others shall be punishable with an imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which lakh, or with both.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, “celebratory gunfire” means the practice of using fire-arm in public gatherings, religious places, marriage parties or other functions to fire ammunition.]” 

It was submitted that since celebratory firing was not prohibited prior to December 14, 2019, the petitioner could not have been penalized by cancelling the arms license, hence the order dated August 5, 2021, passed by the District Magistrate, Saharsa, as also the appellate order dated June 3, 2022 was fit to be set aside.

Justice Shah's judgement recorded that the petitioner had submitted his reply dated April 3, 2021, stating therein that he has used 1302 cartridges in between the years 2005 to 2020, for not only testing his rifle but also on the occasion of Eid and Deepawali. His judgement reads: "This Court finds that the amendment in the Arms Act, 1959 has come into force with effect from 14.12.2019, whereby sub-section (9) has been added to Section 25, which prohibits celebrating firing, hence, considering the fact that the petitioner has submitted his reply dated 03.04.2021, admitting therein that he has engaged in celebratory firing on the occasion of Eid and Deepawali in between the years 2005 to 2020, he is definitely liable for penal consequences/cancellation of his arms license, inasmuch as the year 2020 is definitely covered by the aforesaid amendment. Nevertheless, this Court finds that under the old Arms Rules, 1962, certain conditions have been prescribed as pre-requisites for possessing arms license and one of the conditions is that the licensee shall not carry any arms to a fair, religious procession or other public assemblage or within the campus or precincts of any educational institutions, meaning thereby that no arms can be taken to a religious procession or in marriage festivities. In fact, the amended Arms Rules, 2016, which undeniably covers the present case, also postulates various conditions required to be adhered to for possessing an arms license and the same not only prohibits carrying of fire-arms to a fire-arm free zone or in a public place but also prohibits brandishing of fire-arms in public place or firing fire-arms in any public place on the occasion of marriage, public assembly, fair or procession or any public event."

Justice Shah's judgement pointed out that "the petitioner has admitted to celebratory firing on the occasion of Eid and Deepawali festival, apart from having engaged in such firing on the occasion of marriage ceremony as is apparent not only from the reply of the petitioner dated 03.04.2021, but also from the order dt. 03.6.2022, passed by the Commissioner, Koshi Division, Saharsa and from the report of the Police Officer, Sour Bazar Police Station annexed as annexure-4 series to the writ petition, which has been heavily relied upon by the learned counsel for the petitioner, wherein it has been stated that the petitioner has himself informed the said police officer that on the occasion of Eid and other festivals as also on the occasion of marriage ceremonies, he has been engaging in firing in the air." 

Justice Shah's concluded:"this Court finds that the petitioner has not only violated the conditions prescribed for the purposes of possessing an arms license, as postulated under the Arms Rules, 1962 and the Arms Rules, 2016 but has also contravened Section 25 (9) of the Arms Act, 1959, as amended with effect from 14.12.2019, thus the license of the petitioner has rightly been cancelled by the District Magistrate, Saharsa, by the impugned order dt. 05.08.2021. Consequently, the appellate order dated 03.06.2022 also does not suffer either from jurisdictional error or any illegality. Having regard to the facts and circumstances of the case and for the reasons mentioned, hereinabove, I do not find any merit in the present writ petition, hence the same stands dismissed."

Based on documents on record, Justice Shah's judgement had inferred that the petitioner had admitted that he has been engaging in firing in the air on the occasion of Eid and other festivals as also on the occasion of marriage ceremonies even after 2019. 

The Division Bench pointed out that "In the absence of any adverse report and nothing specific in the explanation of the appellant of having admitted to celebratory firing after 2019, the decisions of the authorities, namely, the District Magistrate and the Commissioner appear to be totally unwarranted and based on complete non-application of mind."

The Division Bench concluded:"For the aforenoted reasons, we set aside the orders passed by the District Magistrate, Saharsa dated 05.08.2021 and the Commissioner dated 03.06.2022 in appeal and the judgment of learned Single Judge upholding the aforenoted two orders. However, we direct the District Magistrate, Saharsa/respondent no. 7 to serve a fresh notice to the appellant, within a period of 30 days from today and seek explanation from him as to why his license be not cancelled for having resorted to celebratory firing from 2019 onwards. After the explanation is received and the police report confirms that there had been violation of anyone of the conditions of license, a reasoned order by the District Magistrate shall be passed within a further period of 90 days, which shall be made known to the appellant forthwith. There would be no necessity of returning the arms and license to the appellant in the meanwhile. The appeal stands allowed to the extent indicated above." The other six respondents were: Divisional Commissioner Koshi Division, Saharsa, Superintendent of Police, Saharsa, Additional District Magistrate, (Arms) Saharsa, District Arms Magistrate, Saharsa,  S.H.O. Sour Bazar Police Station, Saharsa and District Magistrate, Saharsa respectively. The judgement of the Division Bench was authored by Justice Kumar.



 

Saturday, May 24, 2025

Acting Chief Justice led bench affirms validity and constitutionality of State Government's notification regarding ‘Codeine’ as an intoxicant

In Om Logistics Limited through its authorised respresentative Shri Tap Narayan Pandey vs. The State of Bihar through the Chief Secretary, Govt. of Bihar & Ors. (2025), Patna High Court's Division Bench of Acting Chief Justice Ashutosh Kumar and Justice Partha Sarthy concluded: "we note that in the absence of any Rules, at the time when the criminal case was registered against the petitioner, the criminal Courts would necessarily be called upon to take it into consideration, when a prayer is made for quashing the FIR etc., to assess whether the offences charged were made out. For the aforesaid purpose and after declaring the validity and constitutionality of the impugned notification dated 18.10.2016, we refer the Cr.W.J.C. No. 558 of 2021 to the roster of the learned Single Judge hearing such criminal writ petitions." With this observation, the C.W.J.C. No. 20522 of 2021 was disposed off. The judgement was pronounced on May 16, 2025. It was authored by Justice Kumar.  The judgement was reserved on April 22, 2025. It is nor clear which Single Judge is likely to hear the case now with regarding to the applicability of the notification on the date in question. 

Relying on Supreme Court’s 9-judge bench decision in State of U.P. vs. Lalta Prasad Vaish, 2024 SCC OnLine SC 3029, the High Court's judgement reads: "we hold that: (a) the impugned notification is a legitimate exercise of power under Entry 8 List II read with the judgment in Lalta Prasad Vaish (supra).
(b) There is no repugnancy with the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, as the State action targets the abuse
and non-medicinal use of codiene based versions.
(c) The notification is in furtherance of the States’ constitutional obligation under Article 47 to prevent
intoxicating substance abuse.
(d) Intoxicants and intoxicant drugs, when misused would fall in the category of res extra commercium."

The other respondents in the Om Logistics Limited's case were: Additional Chief Secretary, Prohibition, Excise and Registration Department, Govt. of Bihar, Principal Secretary, Prohibition, Excise and Registration Department, Government of Bihar, Excise Commissioner, Prohibition, Excise and Registration Department, Govt. of Bihar, Collector cum District Magistrate, Madhepura, Additional Collector cum Additional District Magistrate, Madhepura, Superintendent of Excise and Prohibition, Madhepura, Superintendent of Police, Madhepura and S.H.O., Singheshwar Police Station, Madhepura. It was heard along with Sooryamani Prasad Pandey @ Sooryamani Pandey @ Suryamani Pandey vs. The State of Bihar Through The D.G.P. Bihar & Ors (2025). The other respondents were: Director General of Police, Bihar, Inspector General of Police, Darbhanga Range, Darbhanga, Deputy Inspector General of Police, Koshi Range, Saharsa, Superintendent of Police, Madhepura and S.H.O., Singheshwar Police Station, Madhepura. The case arose out of a PS. Case of 2020 at Sinheshwar Thana, Madhepura.

The petitioner, a Transportation and Logistics Company, had filed this petition for quashing the Notification No. 11 dated October 18, 2016, whereby, in exercise of powers under Section 3 of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016, the State Government had notified all medicines and medicinal preparations containing medicinal preparation ‘Codeine’ to be an intoxicant for the purposes of the Act, for it being ultra vires Sections 26-A and 26-B of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, read with Entry 132 of Schedule-H read with Rules 65 and 97 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 as also for the notification being beyond the legislative competence of the State Legislature and its Executive. 

The petitioner had also prayed for quashing the order dated September 6, 2021 passed in Excise Confiscation Case No. 32 of 2021 by the Additional Collector-cum-Additional District Magistrate, Madhepura (Respondent No. 6), whereby the truck belonging to the petitioner has been confiscated and has been directed to be auction sold. The petitioner prayed for release of the truck of the petitioner forthwith and also for release of the consignment of drugs viz. Wiscof Cough Syrup containing Codeine which was being transported in the truck in question and for which a P.S. case was registered at Singheshwar Thana.

The petitioner received instructions for booking a shipment containing consignment of Wiscof Cough Syrup on the instructions of M/s Windlas Biotech Pvt. Ltd., Dehradun, the manufacturer of Wiscof Cough Syrup, which was to be picked up from the authorized and licensed distributor, viz. M/s Maa Durga Enterprises (Consignor) which had valid drug license. The company is based in Ranchi (Jharkhand). The consignment had to be transported to Madhepura (Bihar) for being delivered to two licensed pharmacies.

The contention of the petitioner is that M/s Windlas Biotech Pvt. Ltd., the manufacturer of the cough syrup in question containing Codeine Phosphate, had a valid license in terms of Rule 70 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 entitling it to manufacture all prescription drugs including Codeine mentioned in Schedule-H of the rules.

M/s Maa Durga Enterprises (Consignor), was the authorized distributor of M/s Windlas Biotech Private Limited. It is a licensed proprietorship concern holding licences both in Form 20B and 21Benabling it to sell or exhibit (or offer) for sale or distribute by wholesale, drugs specified in Schedule-H of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945. The consignees viz., M/s Bimal Medical Agency as well as M/s Yash Enterprises also have valid licences under Form 20B and 21B to sell Schedule-H drugs including Codeine.

When the truck of the petitioner reached Madhepura with the consignment, the same was seized and an FIR vide Singheshwar P.S. Case No. 228 of 2020 was instituted for offenses punishable under Sections 8(c), 21(c), 22(c), 23, 24, 25, 27A and 29 of the NDPS Act, 1985 and Section 30(a) of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 against the driver of the truck, the consignor, the consignees and the owner of the petitioner/company.

The contention of the petitioner before the courts below was that transporting the cough syrup with Codeine is neither illegal nor prohibited as cough syrup is not an intoxicant or a drug or a psychotropic substance. He 10. He also contented that the Central Government, in exercise of powers conferred under Section 2(xi)(b) of the NDPS Act vide S.O. No. 826(E) dated 14.11.1985, has declared Codeine (Methyl Morphine) and its salts (i.e. including Codeine Phosphate), dilutions and preparations containing not more than 100 mgs. of the drug per dosage unit and with a concentration of not more than 2.5% in undivided preparations and which have been established in therapeutic practice to be a “manufactured drug” within the meaning of the Act. He pointed out that under the license of M/s Windlas Biotech Pvt. Ltd., the cough syrup manufactured by it has less than the prescribed quantity of Codeine by the Central Government. 

The judgement records that "it is not the case of the prosecution either that the cough syrup in question contained dosage of Codiene more than prescribed by the Central Government, rendering it to be a psychotropic substance."

In the petition before the High Court, the primary challenge was to the validity and constitutionality of the notification in question dated October 18, 2016 on the ground of same being ultra vires the State’s legislative competence and it being repugnant to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. 

The State relied on its powers under Entry 8 of List -II of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India and the Supreme Court’s nine Judges’ decision in State of U.P. vs. Lalta Prasad Vaish, 2024 SCC OnLine SC 3029 for defending the notification. 

Notably, Section 3 of the Prohibition Act of 2016 provides the power to the State Government to declare any intoxicant.

Section 3 inter alia states that notwithstanding anything mentioned under Section 2 (40) of the Act, the State Government may, by notification, declare for the purposes of this Act or any portion thereof, such items of commodities or chemical ingredients, which can be used as a substitute for alcohol, to be intoxicants with such restrictions or conditions as may be specified in the notification.

The impugned notification dated October 18, 2016 has been brought about under the powers given to the  State Government under Section 3 of the Act.

Section 2(40) of the Act defines an intoxicant. It means and includes-
(i) liquor, or;
(ii) Spirit including silent spirit or ENA, or;
(iii) Methyl Alcohol, or;
(iv) Ethanol, whether denatured or not, or;
(v) any substance from which the liquor may be distilled and which is declared by the State Government by notification in the Official Gazette to be an intoxicant for the purposes of this Act, or;
(vi) intoxicating drug, or;
(vii) medicinal preparation as defined under Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act, 1955), or; 

(viii) any preparation or ingredient, either medicinal or otherwise, whether solid, semi solid, liquid, semi liquid or gaseous, either made locally or otherwise, that may serve as an alcohol or as a substitute for alcohol and is used or consumed for the purposes of getting intoxicated. 

Section 2(41) of the Act defines ‘intoxicating drug’ which means-

“(i) the leaves, small stalks and flowering or fruiting tops of the Indian hemp plant (Cannabis Sativa L) including all forms known as bhang, siddhi or ganja;

(ii) charas, that is, the resin obtained from the hemp plant, which has not been submitted to any manipulations other than those necessary for packing and transport;

(iii) any mixture, with or without neutral materials, of any of the above forms of intoxicating drug, or any drink prepared therefrom; and

(iv) any other intoxicating or narcotic substance which the State Government may, by notification, declare to be an intoxicating drug, such substance not being opium, cocoa leaf or a manufactured drug, as defined in Section 2 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (61 of 1985).

The notification in question prescribes that all medicines or medicinal preparations containing Codeine and Dextropropoxyphene to be intoxicants for the purposes of the Act.

Sub-clause (iv) of Clause 2 of the notification prescribes prohibition of manufacturing, bottling, distributing, possessing, transporting, transiting, importing or exporting of such drugs without a valid license or permit issued by the Collector under the Act

The petitioner contented that in terms of Entry 19 of the Concurrent List, which contains subject matters “drugs and poisons”, subject to the provisions of Entry 59 of List-I of Union List with respect to opium (Entry 59 of List I includes cultivation, manufacture and sale for export, of opium), two Central legislations viz. N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 and Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 exhaustively occupy the field and therefore, the State would be prevented from making any law by virtue of Entry 8 of List- II of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India which would deal with a manufactured drug permitted under the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 and Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.

In exercise of powers under Section 2(xi)(b) of the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 the Central Government has notified Codeine (Methyl Morphine) and its salts (i.e. including Codeine Phosphate, dilutions and preparations containing not more than 100 mgs per dosage unit and with a concentration of not more than 2.5% in undivided preparations and which have been established in therapeutic practice) to be a manufactured drug within the meaning of the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985.

Similarly, Codeine has been notified to be a prescription drug in terms of Schedule-H of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rule, 1945. In terms of Rules 65, 75 and 97 of the 1945 Rules, the manufacture, distribution, transport, stocking, sale and purchase are regulated through the licenses. Section 18 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 Act prohibits manufacture, distribution, stocking or sale of drugs except in accordance with the Rules or conditions of licenses prescribed under the Act. Section 27 provides penalties and punishments for manufacture, distribution, sale, stocking/exhibition etc. of drugs without a valid license.

Sections 26A and 26B of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 Act exhaustively occupies the field relating to regulation, restriction or prohibition of manufacture, sale or distribution of drugs, reserving the powers for the same exclusively for the Central Government for the purposes of promoting uniformity and standardization of its legislative scheme as a matter of public interest. Thus, it is an exhaustive Code on the subject which cannot be breached by a State law.

The petitioner argued that the State cannot resort to Entry 8 of List- II of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India for notifying medicines and medicinal preparations containing Codeine as intoxicants under the protective and expansive umbrella of Article 47 of the Constitution of India.

Article 47 of the Constitution of India casts a duty on the States to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health. The State shall endeavor to bring about prohibition of the consumption, except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health.

The petitioner submitted that the impugned notification is ultra vires the parent Act. The reasons for saying so is that Section 2(40) of the Act defines intoxicants, whereas 2(41) defines intoxicating drug. 2(41) (iv) enables the State Government to notify and declare any other substance to be an intoxicating drug, such substances not being opium, cocoa leaf or a manufactured drug, as defined in Section 2 of the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985.

It was submitted that what Section 3 of the Prohibition Act of 2016 permits is inclusion/addition in the list of intoxicant substances other than those covered under Section 2(40) of the Act and not what is covered under Section 2(41) of the Act.

Codeine has been notified as a manufactured drug by the Central Government, and therefore, it cannot be included in the definition of intoxicating drug in view of the bar contained under Section 2(41)(iv) of the Prohibition Act, 2016. 

The petitioner had questioned the Constitutionality and validity of the notification saying that the notification is absolutely unworkable in view of Sections 14 and 27 of the Act of 2016.

Sections 14, 15, 16 and 27 of the Prohibition Act of 2016 reads: 14. Movement of Intoxicants etc.-(1) No liquor, intoxicant or final product shall be imported, exported or transported or transited within or from outside or through the State except with a valid permit and subject to such duty (if any) payable; (2) If any consignment of liquor or intoxicants is being transported by road from a place outside the State of Bihar to another such place and the vehicle carrying the consignment passes through the territory of the State, the driver or any other person in-charge of the vehicle shall obtain transit permission in the prescribed manner from the authority of the first check post falling en route after entry into the State and shall surrender the same transit permission to the authority of the last check-post before leaving the State and in the event of failure to do so within the stipulated hours of leaving the first check-post falling en route, it shall be deemed that liquor or intoxicants so transported have been sold or disposed off by the owner or the person-in-charge of the vehicle within the State of Bihar. (3) In case the driver or person referred to in sub-section (2) fails to comply with the provisions of sub-section (2), he may, apart from being levied such penalty as the State Government may decide, also be prosecuted under section 30 of this Act; (4) The State Government may make detailed rules for this purpose.
15. Restrictions on Vehicles carrying intoxicants etc.-The State Government may lay down reasonable restrictions on the vehicles transporting any excisable articles or final products and may require them to adhere to certain specifications. Provided further that the State Government may require the transport vehicles to install such devices as it may require as a pre-condition for registration under the Motor Vehicles Act and give such directions to the State Transport Authority as it deems fit.
16. Power to Regulate Transport of Intoxicants.-Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act or any Act for the time being in force, the State Government may, by notification, regulate the movement or import or export of any or all liquor or intoxicant into or from or through the State or any specified part or area of the State.
27. Fees for terms, conditions, and form of, and duration of, licenses, permits and passes-(1) Every license renewed or permit/ pass granted under this Act – (a) shall be renewed or granted -(i)On payment of such fees (if any), and(ii)Subject to such restrictions and on such conditions, and (b) shall be in such form and contain such particulars, as the Rules may provide. (2) Every license renewed or permit or pass  granted under this Act shall be for such period (if any) as prescribed by rule made by the State Government under this Act.

It was pointed out that no rules have been framed under Section 95 of the Act, prescribing the form and particulars as required under Section 27(1)(b) of the Act of 2016, in terms whereof any intoxicant could be transported within the State of Bihar with regard to Section 14 of the Act of 2016. As such, the provision of Section 14 of the Act of 2016, creating an embargo on such transportation, is unworkable. A Division Bench of this Court in CTI Infrastructure Private Limited Vs. State of Bihar, 2019 SCC OnLIne Pat 710 held it likewise. The net effect of the notification in question is that a licensed act could become a penal offence. In the absence of Rules, as required in terms of Section 95 of the Act and in absence of any permit or license being prescribed, the notification, without providing for anything else, is unworkable and therefore should not be given effect to.

The judgement records that the Rules have now been made under the rubric of Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules 2021 which was published in Bihar Gazette on September 27, 2021. It also noted that the FIR against the petitioner is prior to the promulgation of the Rules.

The Advocate General submitted that drawing on Article 47 of the Constitution of India, the Government of Bihar announced the new Excise policy on December 21, 2015 for complete prohibition in the whole State of Bihar for public morality, public health and for the harmful and dangerous character of the liquor/intoxicants. The mandate of the Constitution to the State is clear to the extent of regulating trade or business in intoxicants. Entry 8 of List- II of the Seventh Schedule empowers the State to deal exclusively in intoxicants including its production, manufacture, possession, transport and sale etc. Since the Entry is expansive, there was no necessity of obtaining any presidential assent in the matter. The notification in question was brought about to notify all medicines or medicinal preparations containing Codeine and Dextropropoxyphene to be intoxicants. Entry 8 of List- II gives unrestricted power to the State to deal with intoxicating materials.

Notably, Entry 11 of List- II, which gave unrestricted power to the State Governments with regard to the trade and commerce in potable alcohol was deleted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976. 

Advocate General drew on the binding precedent of 9- Judges’ Bench in State of U.P. vs. Lalta Prasad Vaish, 2024 SCC OnLine SC 3029 in defending the notification and submitted that (i) it is within the legislative competence of the State; (ii) the notification is not repugnant with the Central law as it targets only misuse and unauthorized use of the intoxicants; (iii) provides exceptions for licensed Pharmacies and registered practitioners; (iv) and is absolutely reasonable and proportional to the mischief which is sought to be avoided, to the public health and morality. He also submitted that the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021 providing for a structured licensing regime for the manufacture, possession, sale of medicinal and pharmaceuticals preparations that may otherwise fall under the definition of intoxicants, if misused, especially with reference to Rule 22 and 24(2).

The judgement recalled that several States in the past had imposed levies (excise duties or fees) on industrial alcohol (denatured spirits under their Excise Act), claiming power under Entry 8 of List 2. This was challenged by manufacturers of industrial alcohol in Synthetics and Chemicals Ltd. v. State of U.P.; (1990) 1 SCC 109, a 7-Judge Bench explained the scope of the regulatory powers of the State legislature on “intoxicating liquor”. 

But subsequently, the correctness of this view in Synthetics and Chemicals case was tested by a 9-judge bench in State of U.P. Vs. Lalta Prasad Vaish case (supra). Two of the questions which were framed in Synthetics and Chemicals case were (i) “what is the scope and ambit of Entry 8 of List-II of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution”; and (ii) “whether the State Government has exclusive right or privilege of manufacturing, selling, distributing etc. of alcohols including industrial alcohol." 

It was held that Ethyl Alcohol was an industrial alcohol and the phrase intoxicating liquor in Entry 8 means liquor which is consumable by human being as it is. The power of the State, it was held in Synthetics and Chemicals case to legislate on the subject of alcohol is restricted to (1) prohibit potable alcohol in terms of Entry 6 of List 2 which concerns public health laying down regulations to ensure that non-potable alcohol is not diverted and misused as a substitute for potable alcohol; (2) charge Excise duties on potable alcohol and Sales Tax under Entry 52 of List 2 but not on industrial alcohol.

The issues in Synthetics and Chemicals case focused on the competence of the respective legislature to levy tax on industrial alcohol and in that context, the demarcation of the Entries in List-I and List-II were emphasized with a tilt towards federal autonomy. It demarcated the legislative competence between the Union and States in matters relating to alcohol and limited the State’s power to regulate only potable alcohol. The judgment reinforced the doctrine of pith and substance and exclusive federal control over certain industry. This had led to reassessment of Excise policies in many States and the States had to withdraw Excise duties on industrial alcohol.

The High Court recollected that the issue was ultimately referred to the 9-Judge Bench in State of U.P. and Ors. vs. Lalta Prasad Vaish case, wherein two issues, relevant for the decision in the Om Logistics Limited case, amongst others, were discussed, viz., (i) whether there would be a presumption of the intention of the Central Government to cover the entire field with respect to Entry 33 of List III (trade and
commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of products of any industry where the control of such industry by the Union is declared by the Parliament by law to be expedient in public interest) so as to oust the States’ competence to legislate in respect of matters related thereto; and (ii) whether the interpretation given in Synthetics and Chemicals case with respect to the ambit and scope of Entry 8 of List-II is correct.

The 9-Judge Bench in Lalta Prasad Vaish case analyzed various decisions on the subject and held as follows: “140. In view of the discussion above, the following conclusions emerge:
a. Entry 8 of List II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution is both an industry-based entry and a product-based entry. The words that follow the expression “that is to say” in the Entry are not exhaustive of its contents. It includes the regulation of everything from the raw materials to the consumption of ‘intoxicating liquor’;
b. Parliament cannot occupy the field of the entire industry merely by issuing a declaration under Entry 52 of List I.
The State Legislature's competence under Entry 24 of List II is denuded only to the extent of the field covered by the law of Parliament under Entry 52 of List I;
c. Parliament does not have the legislative competence to enact a law taking control of the industry of intoxicating liquor covered by Entry 8 of List II in exercise of the power under Article 246 read with Entry 52 of List I;
d. The judgments of the Bombay High Court in FN Balsara v. State of Bombay (supra) and Southern Pharmaceuticals (supra) did not limit the meaning of the expression ‘intoxicating liquor’ to its popular meaning, that is, alcoholic beverages that produce intoxication. All the three judgments interpreted the expression to cover alcohol that could be noxiously used to the detriment of health;
e. The expression ‘intoxicating liquor’ in Entry 8 has not acquired a legislative meaning on an application
of the test laid down in State of Madras v. Gannon Dunkerley; 1959 SCR 379;-
f. The study of the evolution of the legislative entries on alcohol indicates that the use of the expressions “intoxicating liquor” and “alcoholic liquor for human consumption” in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution was a matter well-thought of. It also indicates that the members of the Constituent Assembly were aware of use of the variants of alcohol as a raw material in the production of multiple products;
g. Entry 8 of List II is based on public interest. It seeks to enhance the scope of the entry beyond potable alcohol.
This is inferable from the use of the phrase ‘intoxicating’ and other accompanying words in the Entry. Alcohol is inherently a noxious substance that is prone to misuse affecting public health at large. Entry 8 covers alcohol that could be used noxiously to the detriment of public health. This includes alcohol such as rectified spirit, ENA and denatured spirit which are used as raw materials in the production of potable alcohol and other products. However, it does not include the final product (such as a hand sanitiser) that contains alcohol since such an interpretation will substantially diminish the scope of other legislative entries;
h. The judgment in Synthetics (7J) (supra) is overruled in terms of this judgment;
i. Item 26 of the First Schedule to the IDRA must be read as excluding the industry of “intoxicating liquor”, as interpreted in this judgment;
j. The correctness of the judgment in Tika Ramji (supra) on the interpretation of word ‘industry’ as it occurs in the legislative entries does not fall for determination in this reference; and
k. The issue of whether Section 18G of the IDRA covers the field under Entry 33 of List III does not arise for adjudication in view of the finding that denatured alcohol is covered by Entry 8 of List II.”

The 9-Judges Bench had found that there was an unduly narrow interpretation of intoxicants in Synthetics
(supra). Thus, the restrictive view in Synthetics and Chemicals case was discarded and the view which was focused was that the effect and use of the substance was necessary and not just its chemical composition or original intended purpose.

Even medicinal or industrial products would fall within the definition of intoxicants, if misused for intoxication. A purposive construction, therefore, was given to Entry 8 List II. The goal of prohibition laws is not taxation or regulation of industry, but public health, morality and prevention of substance abuse. Therefore, it was held that the States’ competence should be interpreted in the light of its responsibilities under Article 47 of the Constitution of India and there should be no constraint by a rigid industrial classification.

Unlike in Court in Lalta Prasad Vaish (supra) clarified that State Prohibition Laws under Entry 8 are qualitatively different from commercial regulation under Entry 33 of List III. The State does not interfere with trade but acts to prohibit harmful consumption, which falls entirely within its domain.

The principles of pith and substance and occupied field were not accepted in Lalta Prasad Vaish (supra) to expand the powers of the Union or to hold the State Law under Entry 8 of List II to be either repugnant to any Central Law or hit by the occupied field frame. It would not be out of place to state in short about the doctrine of pith and substance, which is used to determine the true nature of substance of the legislation when there is an overlap between the powers of the Centre and the State under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. It primarily declares that if the main corpus of a law is within the jurisdiction of the legislature that passed it, then the law is valid, even if it incidentally encroaches on another legislature’s domain. 

The principle of “occupied field” is a principle in the Indian Constitutional Law that arises from the distribution of legislative powers. The concept is that if the Parliament enacts a law on a subject enumerated in the concurrent list, and the law displays an intention to cover the entire field, then the State Law on the same subject, if inconsistent, becomes inoperative, even if it were enacted earlier or has received presidential assent. In other words, the “field” is said to be “occupied” by the Union Legislation. The purpose of invoking this doctrine is to ensure uniformity in laws on certain matters of national importance and prevent conflicting State Laws. (refer to Tika Ramji & Others, Etc. vs The State Of Uttar Pradesh & Others, 1956 AIR 676; Deep Chand v. State of U.P., 1959 AIR 648; M. Karunanidhi vs The Union Of India (UOI), 1979 AIR 898 and Zameer Ahmed Latifur Rehman Sheikh v. State of Maharashtra And Others, AIR 2010 SC 2633). In M. Karunanidhi (supra) the Supreme Court has laid down a four point tests to determine repugnancy: (i) whether there is a direct conflict; (ii) whether Parliament is intended to cover the entire field;
(iii) whether both Laws can co-exists; and
(iv) whether the Central Law is exhaustive.

If the Central Law occupies the field completely, the State Law will be repugnant and invalid to that extent.

In  oechst Pharmaceuticals Ltd. and Ors. vs. State of Bihar and Ors. : (1983) 4 SCC 45, which is the locus classicus on the constitutional scheme of legislative distribution, it was held that when there is a conflict between an Entry in List I and an Entry in List II which is not capable of reconciliation, the power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a field covered by List I has precedence over the power of the State to that extent. It was further held that in case of a seeming conflict between the entries in the two Lists, the entries must be read together, without giving a narrow and restricted meaning to either of the entries in the List.

If the entries cannot be reconciled by giving a wide meaning, it must be determined if they can be reconciled by giving the entries a narrower meaning

In State of West Bengal and Ors. vs. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal and Ors. : (2010) 3 SCC 571, the Supreme Court held that the principle of federal supremacy in Article 246 can be resorted to only when there is an irreconcilable direct conflict between the entries in List I and List II.

Entry 8 of List II is to be understood in terms of the phrase “that is to say” which provides platform for the State to make laws with respect to production, manufacture, possession, transport, purchase and sale of intoxicating liquors. It is a general entry and not a taxing entry. Nonetheless, it is a special entry in the sense that it specifically enumerates intoxicating liquors as a legislative field to the exclusion of all other general entries under which it may have otherwise being subsumed. The entry stipulates that intoxicating liquors would fall within the legislative domain of the States and it would also include any intoxicant or intoxicant drug and its manufacture, production, transportation, etc.

The States’ power over intoxicating substances is res extra commercium, which means that certain activities or items are so inherently harmful, immoral, or opposed to public policy that it cannot be the subject of trade, business or fundamental rights like Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution. Though this doctrine had originated in Roman Law but in several cases in the Indian context, it has been invoked to justify State regulation or prohibition of trade in certain goods or activities such as intoxicants, narcotics, gambling etc.

In the State Of Bombay vs R. M. D. Chamarbaugwala, 1957 AIR 699 gambling and betting were held to be res extra commercium. In Khoday Distilleries Ltd. v. State of Karnataka, (1996) 10 SCC 304, liquor was affirmed as res extra commercium meaning thereby that State could prohibit or regulate it straight entirely. The protection of 19(1)(g) would not apply to such inherently dangerous goods. Though there have been some criticism of the doctrine on the ground of it being vague and arbitrary but so far as liquor and intoxicants are concerned, there is unanimity of the judicial opinion that such goods are extra commercium.

In Southern Pharmaceuticals and Chemical vs. State of Kerala; (1981) 4 SCC 391, the appellants had challenged the constitutional validity of the provisions of the Abkari Act, as amended by the Abkari (Amendment) Act, 1967 and Kerala Rectified Spirit Rules 1972 which regulated the use of alcohol for the preparation of medicines. Item 22 of the Schedule to IDRA specifies the “drugs and pharmaceuticals” industry. The contention was that the State Legislature did not have the competence to enact laws because the field was covered by Parliament through IDRA. The issue before the three Judges’ Bench of the Supreme Court was whether the State Legislature had the competence to enact law related to medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol under Entry 8 of List-II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution. The Supreme Court held that the State had the competence to enact the impugned laws under Entry 8 of List-II because the legislations are confined to ensuring the proper utilization of rectified spirit in the manufacture of medicinal and toilet preparations. The preparations which are capable of being misused or noxious purpose can be considered intoxicating liquor. The test to determine if it can be misused is whether the article in question can be used as a beverage.