Thursday, March 26, 2026

Remembering Asokan edicts on 2331st birth anniversary of Asoka, the Buddhist

In Outline of History (1920), H.G. Wells declared Asoka to be one of the six greatest men of history (the others being Buddha, Socrates, Aristotle, Roger Bacon and Abraham Lincoln), and he wrote about Asoka (in his "") in the following terms: "Asoka (264-227 B.C.) was one of greatest monarchs of history whose dominions extended from Afghanistan what is now the province of Madras. He is the only military monarch on record who abandoned. warfare after victory." 

Asoka had invaded Kalinga in 225 B. C. After the conquest, he declared that he would no longer seek conquest by war, but by religion, and the rest of his life was devoted to the spreading of Buddhism throughout the world. 

About Asoaka, Wells wrote: "He seems to have ruled his vast empire in peace and with great ability. He was no mere religious fanatic. But in the year of his one and only war he joined the Buddhist community as a layman, and some years later he became a full member of the Order, and devoted himself to the attainment of Nirvana by the Eightfold Path" including Right Aspiration, Right Effort and Right Livelihood

He set up long inscriptions rehearsing the teaching of Buddha. About thirty-five of his inscriptions survive even today. These are available at Serial nomination for Ashokan Edict sites along the Mauryan Routes.  These edicts can be seen at https://www.pbs.org/thestoryofindia/gallery/photos/6.html

The Asokan edicts hold the distinction of being the first written inscriptions in India following the decline of the ancient city of Harappa. Most of these edicts remain visible at their original locations due to being carved into immovable rocks and boulders. 

Through these inscriptions on stones and pillars, Asoka shared pivotal moments from his royal life. His words offer a glimpse into how he reshaped his own journey while attempting to transform the lives of people within his empire and even beyond its borders. 

The Asokan edicts convey a wide range of emotions, including sincerity and sentiment, discussions of death and devastation and authoritative commands. The remarkable preservation of these rock edicts is notable. 

Despite being over 2,200 years old, many of them appear almost exactly as they did when they were originally created. The survival of such ancient documents in their original form and locations is quite unusual. All of these rock edict sites are protected by Archaeological Survey of India.

The first known edict, sometimes classified as a Minor Rock Edict, is the Kandahar Bilingual Rock Inscription, in Greek and in Aramaic, written in the 10th year of his reign (260 BCE) at the border of his empire with the Hellenistic world, in the city of Old Jandahar in modern Afghanistan.

Asoka then made the first edicts in the Indian language, written in the Brahmi script, from the 11th year of his reign (according to his own inscription, "two and a half years after becoming a secular Buddhist", i.e. two and a half years at least after returning from the Kalinga conquest of the eighth year of his reign, which is the starting point for his remorse towards the horrors of the war, and his gradual conversion to Buddhism). The texts of the inscriptions are rather short, the technical quality of the engraving of the inscriptions is generally very poor, and generally very inferior to the pillar edicts dated to the years 26 and 27 of Asoka's reign.

There are several slight variations in the content of these edicts, depending on location, but a common designation is usually used, with Minor Rock Edict N°1 (MRE1) and a Minor Rock Edict N°2 (MRE2, which does not appear alone but always in combination with Edict N°1), the different versions being generally aggregated in most translations. 

The Maski version of Minor Rock Edict No.1 is historically particularly important in that it confirmed the association of the title "Devanampriya" with the name "Asoka", thereby clarifying the historical author of all these inscriptions. In the Gujarra version of Minor Rock Edict No.1 also, the name of Ashoka is used together with his full title: Devanampiya Piyadasi Asokaraja.

There is also a unique Minor Rock Edict No.3, discovered next to Bairat Temple, for the Buddhist clergy, which gives a list of Buddhist scriptures (most of them unknown now) which the clergy should study regularly.

His edicts (Dhamma Lipi) incised on pillars and rocks, in both condensed and elaborate versions are found all over the Indian sub-continent, from Shahbazgarhi now in Pakistan to Lauriya Nanadagarh in Bihar and from Girnar in Gujarat to Dhauli In Orissa and further south up to Yerragudi in Andhra Pradesh.

The Girnar edicts represented here by a metal cast of the inscribed rock are fourteen in umber, like those found at Yerragudi, Kalsi, Shahbazgarhi and Mansehra.

1. No living being may be slaughtered for sacrifice.

2. In and outside his dominions, Priyadarshi Ashoka has arranged for the medical treatment of man and beast.

3. Priyadarshi Ashoka ordered tours by his officers every five years to inspect and preach Dhamma (moral and social code of conduct) in his dominions, in addition to their regular duties and to teach his people to obey parents, be liberal to friends, relatives, Brahmanas and Sramanas (Monks), to abstain from killing animals.

4. Priyadarshi promotes Dhamma and expects his descendants like wise to continue to promote it.

5. Dhamma Mahamatras have been appointed for establishing and promoting Dhamma in his land even among the Yavanas, Kambojas, Gandharas, Rashtrikas and others.

6. Reports of affairs in his kingdom could be brought to his notice anytime, as he considered it his duty constantly and speedily to attend to the welfare of his subjects.

7. Priyadarshi wishes that all religious sects in his dominion should like in peace and amity and stresses self-control and purity of mind.

8. Priyadarshi who visited Sambodhi (Bodh Gaya, Bihar) started on pilgrimage of Dhamma making gift to Brahmanas and Sramanas, contacting the people of the countryside and exhorting them to follow the path of Dhamma.

9. Ceremonies associated with Dhamma produce great results. These are courtesy to slaves and servants, reverence to elders, restraint and liberality to Brahmanas and Sramanas. By this practice heaven is won.

10. Priyadarshi does not consider glory in this life or fame after death as of any consequences except the glory of his being able to induce his people to practice Dhamma.

11. There is no gift like the gift of Dhamma, there is no distribution like the distribution of Dhamma and no kinship like the kinship of Dhamma.

12. The growth of Dhamma is by the restraint of speech which means no praise of one’s own faith or disparagement of another.

13. The conquest of Kalinga resulting in unprecedented slaughter and carrying away of captives brought remorse to Priyadarshi. He was therefore determined for conquest through Dhamma.

14. This record relating to Dhamma has been inscribed in abridged or expanded form, so that people may act accordingly. 

The individual morality that Asoka propagated respect (//susrusa//) towards parents, elders, teachers, friends, servants, ascetics and brahmins -- behavior that accords with the advice given to Sigala by the Buddha (Digha Nikaya, Discourse No. 31). He encouraged generosity (//dana//) to the poor (//kapana valaka//), to ascetics and brahmins, and to friends and relatives. Not surprisingly, Asoka encouraged harmlessness towards all life (//avihisa bhutanam//). In conformity with the Buddha's advice in the Anguttara Nikaya, II:282, he also considered moderation in spending and moderation in saving to be good (//apa vyayata apa bhadata//). Treating people properly (//samya pratipati//), he suggested, was much more important than performing ceremonies that were supposed to bring good luck. Because it helped promote tolerance and mutual respect, Asoka desired that people should be well-learned (//bahu sruta//) in the good doctrines (//kalanagama//) of other people's religions. The qualities of heart that are recommended by Asoka in the edicts indicate his deep spirituality. They include kindness (//daya//), self-examination (//palikhaya//), truthfulness (//sace//), gratitude (//katamnata//), purity of heart (//bhava sudhi//), enthusiasm (//usahena//), strong loyalty (//dadha bhatita//), self-control (//sayame//) and love of the Dhamma (//Dhamma kamata//). 

NDPS cases of Nav Kumar Ojha, Shankar Yadav, Pritam Lakda listed for hearing on March 30

Nav Kumar Ojha's NDPS convicted case has been listed for hearing on March 30 in High Court along with the related case of Shankar Yadav and Pritam Lakda. The 2-page long order dated March 24, 2026 in Shankar Yadav and Pritam Lakra vs. The Union of India through the Intelligence Officer, Narcotices Control Bureau, Bihar (2026) by Division Bench of Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad and Soni Shrivastava reads:"This Court has been informed that one of the convicts from the same trial namely, Nav Kumar Ojha has filed Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 which is pending before this Bench. 2. It is submitted that since the said Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 arises out of the same impugned judgment and order, it would be appropriate to hear the present appeal together with Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025. 3. We agree with the submissions. 4. Learned counsel for the respondent is present. 5. List this matter together with Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 under the heading for hearing immediately after Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 is admitted. 6. The said appeal is likely to be listed under appropriate heading on 30.03.2026. Let this case be tagged with the said appeal and listed simultaneously with Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 under appropriate heading." Notably, the seller of the Ganja have not been prosecuted and the buyer of the Ganja has been acquitted. The State has not challenged the acquittal.    

In Nav Kumar Ojha vs. The Union of India (2026), Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad and Soni Shrivastava had passed an order dated March 13, 2026, wherein it sent a reminder to the trial court, Bhojpur to send the corrected copy of the impugned judgment to the High Court within one week. 

The order reads: "If the corrected copy is not received within the given period,  the record shall be placed before the learned Registrar General who will call upon the learned Principal District Judge, Bhojpur and ensure compliance with the order....4. List this matter on 30.03.2026 under appropriate heading." This  order was passed upon hearing Dr. Gopal Krishna, the counsel for the appellant who pointed out that the Court's previous order for rectifying the error in the trail court's order, has not been complied with as yet. The order by the trial court was authored by Birendra Kumar Choubey as Additional Sessions Judge, NDPS, Bhojpur.

At present, the High Court's website shows that a letter in this regard was sent on March 11, 2026 to District and Additional Session Judge VIII  and it was received on March  17, 2026. This is recorded on the case status page of the website. 

The appellant is in custody since February 2021 in connection with N.D.P.S Case No.6/2021, arising out of N.C.B. Case No. NCB/PZU/V/01/2021 dated 02.02.2021, for the offences punishable under Sections 8(c), 20(b) (ii) (C) and 25 NDPS Act. According to prosecution case, altogether 909.2 Kg ganja has been recovered from the truck in question, in which the petitioner along with other person was sitting, which was to be delivered to one Bijendra Kumar Ray. The fact is that the appellant was not on the truck in question. It is crystal clear from the F.I.R. as well as seizure list that nothing incriminating was recovered from his conscious possession. He was arrested and convicted on the basis of a confession of Shankar Yadav, the truck driver and Pritam Lakda, the helper made to the officer of the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB). In their confession in police custody it was stated that the appellant had escorted the truck by his Mahindra Scorpio till Aurangabad after that he had left for Chapra. The appellant has been exonerated from charges under Section 29 of the NDPS Act by the trial court.   

The related case Shankar Yadav and Pritam Lakda vs. Union of India is listed for hearing on March 23, 2026 before the same Division Bench. The trial court, Bhojpur had convicted Shankar Yadav (truck driver), Pritam Lakda (khalasi-helper) and Nav Kumar Ojha (truck owner) by its judgement and order dated May 9, 2023 and May 17, 2023. But had acquitted Birendar Kumar Ray, the recipient/buyer of the Ganja in question. It is significant that No case was pursued against the seller of the Ganja in question. Notably, the state did not file its appeal against the acquittal of Ray. The prosecution has failed to explain the chain of custody of the Ganja in question. In its 84-page long judgement by Additional Sessions Judge-VIII, Bhojpur with reference to four persons namely, 1) Bijendra Kumar Rai (Bihar), Nav Kumar Ojha (Jharkhand), Shankar Yadav  (Jharkhand) and Pritam Lakda (Jharkhand), all the four accused were acquitted of conspiracy charges (Section 29 of  Narcotic Drugs And Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985) by the trial court. But Bijendra Kumar Ray (Bihar), the kingpin was given the benefit of doubt, and acquitted by the trial court, and the remaining three-truck owner, driver and khalasi were convicted.

The last order dated May 9, 2024 in this case by High Court's Division bench of Justices Ashutosh Kumar and Jitendra Kumar recorded that the Advocates for Shankar Yadav, Pritam Lakra and Nav Kumar Ojha, the Appellants submitted that "the informant is the Investigator of this case which vitiates the entire  prosecution case. It has further been submitted that none of the mandatory provisions of the NDPS Act has been complied with." The argument was submitted by Dr. Gopal Krishna, the counsel for the second appellant. The High Court's order reads: "We have also been informed that the wife of another co-convict is mentally ill and, therefore, no appeal has been preferred on his behalf as yet. Apart from this, this Court has been informed that the main accused of this case has been acquitted on a specious plea which is not sustainable in the eyes of law. Though, taking into account the quantity of narcotics recovered from a vehicle of which the appellants are driver and cleaner respectively, we are not inclined to suspend their sentence presently. The prayer is rejected. However, we direct the registry to prepare the paper book urgently and get this case listed for final hearing in the second week of August commencing from 5th of August, 2024. We have said so for the reason that one of the co-convicts has still not preferred an appeal and the appellant No. 2 is a tribal student who is barely in his teens." 

Pritam Lakda, the second appellant, a resident of Jharkhand is in Buxer jail. Shankar Yadav, the first appellant is in Ara jail and is represented by Advocate Ravindra Kumar. Advocate Dr. Gopal Krishna  represents the second appellant. He also represents Nav Kumar Ojha, the third convict. The third convict, a resident of Jharkhand is in Buxer jail as well.

Section 20 of the NDPS Act deals with punishment for contravention in relation to cannabis plants and cannabis. It states that "Whoever, in contravention of any provision of this Act or any rule or order made or condition of licence granted thereunder,—(a) cultivates any cannabis plant; or (b) produces, manufactures, possesses, sells, purchases, transports, imports inter-State, exports inter-State or uses cannabis, shall be punishable..."  Section 20 (ii) b of the NDPS Act states that where such contravention relates to sub-clause (b) and involves quantity lesser than commercial quantity but greater than small quantity, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees. Section 20 (ii) (C) states that where such contravention relates to sub-clause (b), and involves commercial quantity, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to twenty years and shall also be liable to fine which shall not be less than one lakh rupees but which may extend to two lakh rupees: Provided that the court may, for reasons to be recorded in the judgment, impose a fine exceeding two lakh rupees.
 
The judgement of the the Additional Sessions Judge-VIII, Bhojpur reveals that Pritam Lakra, khalasi (helper) of the truck is not covered under the ambit of Section 20 (ii) (b) (C) of the NDPS Act because there is nothing on record to show that he is a cultivator of any cannabis plant or producer, manufacturer, possessor, seller, purchaser, transporter, inter-State importer, inter-State exporter or user of cannabis. It is apparent that the Additional Sessions Judge-VIII, Bhojpur committed an error in convicting him under Section 20 (ii) (b) (C) of the NDPS Act after exonerating him of charges under Section 29 of the NDPS Act.

As to Section 25 of NDPS Act which deals with the punishment for allowing premises, etc., to be used for commission of an offence, it states that "Whoever, being the owner or occupier or having the control or use of any house, room, enclosure, space, place, animal or conveyance, knowingly permits it to be used for the commission by any other person of an offence punishable under any provision of this Act, shall be punishable with the punishment provided for that offence." It is apparent that Pritam Lakda, the khalasi (helper) does not fall within the ambit of Section 25. 

Also read: Patna High Court detects error in sentencing order by Birendra Kumar Choubey as Additional Sessions Judge, NDPS, asks trial court to rectify its defect within one week 




Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices Alok Kumar Sinha, Sangam Kumar Sahoo sets aside judgement by Justice Harish Kumar

In The Patna High Court through its Registrar General, Patna High Court & Ors. vs. Chandan Kumar & Ors. (2026), Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices Alok Kumar Sinha and Sangam Kumar Sahoo delivered a 33-page long judgement dated March 24, 2026, wherein, it concluded:"....this Court is of the considered opinion that the impugned judgment and order dated 09.07.2025 passed by the learned Single Judge cannot be sustained in the eyes of law, inasmuch as the same proceeds on an erroneous application of legal principles, extends the benefit of earlier judgments beyond their intended scope, and overlooks material aspects relating to delay, laches and the statutory framework governing the field. The reasoning so adopted does not stand to judicial scrutiny and has resulted in an unwarranted direction for consideration of the writ petitioner’s case. 61. Accordingly, the appeal deserves to be and is hereby allowed; the impugned judgment and order is set aside, and the writ petition stands dismissed. There shall be no order as to costs." The other Appellants in this Letters Patent Appeal (LPA) were Registrar General, Patna High Court and. The Convenor, Co-ordination Committee-cum- District and Sessions Judge, Patna, District- Patna. The other Respondents were:The State of Bihar, through the Chief Secretary, Government of Bihar and the Law Secretary, Law Department, Government of Bihar. The judgement was authored by Justice Sinha. 

In his 18 page-long judgement dated July 9, 2025, Justice Harish Kumar, the Single Judge had observed: "25. This Court thus, hereby, held that the case of the petitioner is squarely covered with those of the decision rendered by the learned Division Bench in LPA No. 650 of 2022 with other analogous cases and LPA No. 727 of 2023 as well as LPA No. 261 of 2020. 26. Accordingly, the writ petition stands allowed. 27. The concerned respondent is hereby directed to consider the case of the petitioner, in view of the discussions made hereinabove and if the petitioner is otherwise eligible, issue necessary order in accordance with law and accord the similar treatment, as has been extended to the similarly situated candidates. The entire exercise must be completed preferably within a period of eight weeks, from the date of receipt/production of a copy of this order."

The L.P.A. was preferred by the appellants assailing the judgment and order dated July 9, 2025 passed by the Single Judge in C.W.J.C. No. 10521 of 2022, whereby the Single Judge, had held that the case of the Chandan Kumar, writ petitioner–respondent No. 1 was squarely covered by the judgments and orders dated April 19, 2023 passed in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 and analogous cases, dated January 18, 2024 passed in L.P.A. No. 727 of 2023, and dated December 16, 2024 passed in L.P.A. No. 261 of 2024, was pleased to allow the writ petition with a direction to the appellants to consider the case of the said respondent No. 1 and, if found otherwise eligible, to issue necessary orders of appointment and posting on the post of Clerk in the Civil Courts of Bihar, in accordance with law, by extending similar treatment as granted to other similarly situated candidates, and to complete the entire exercise preferably within a period of eight weeks from the date of receipt/production of a copy of the said judgment; the appellants, being aggrieved thereby, preferred the LPA praying for setting aside the impugned judgment and order as being unsustainable in law.

The Division Bench framed the following issued for consideration:
(i) Whether the writ petition filed by the respondent–writ petitioner was liable to be dismissed on the ground of delay, laches and acquiescence, particularly in view of the expiry of the panel/wait-list dated September 26, 2018 under Rule 7 of the Bihar Civil Court Staff (Class-III & IV) Rules, 2009?
(ii) Whether the respondent–writ petitioner can be treated as a “fence-sitter” disentitled to relief, or whether he had approached the Court with sufficient diligence so as to claim consideration?
(iii) Whether the learned Single Judge was justified in directing consideration of the respondent’s case for
appointment, in light of Rule 7 of the 2009 Rules and the admitted position that candidates with lower merit have already been appointed pursuant to judicial orders?
(iv) Whether the impugned judgment and order dated July 9, 2025 suffers from any legal infirmity, perversity or error apparent on the face of the record warranting interference by this Court in exercise of its Letters Patent Appellate jurisdiction? 

With regard to Issue no.(i), the The Division Bench observed: "17. At the outset, it needs to be examined whether the writ petition filed by the respondent–writ petitioner was maintainable in the teeth of the settled principles governing delay, laches and acquiescence, particularly when the select panel/wait- list dated 26.09.2018 had admittedly exhausted its statutory life on September 26, 2020 under Rule 7(13) of the Bihar Civil Court Staff (Class-III & IV) Rules, 2009. 18. From the undisputed facts on record, it emerges that the respondent–writ petitioner approached this Court by filing the present writ petition only on 22.07.2022. Even if his earlier attempt by way of filing I.A. No. 04 of 2022 on 09.05.2022 is taken into account, the same was also after the expiry of the two-year validity period of the panel, which came to an end on 26.09.2020. Thus, there is a clear and unexplained delay of more than one and a half years in invoking the writ jurisdiction. 19. It is well settled that though no rigid period of limitation applies to proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution, the principles of delay and laches are nonetheless applicable with full force." 

The Division Bench relied on Supreme Court's decision in State of U.P. vs. Harish Chandra reported in (1996) 9 SCC 309, while dealing with a claim arising out of an expired select list, categorically held that no mandamus can be issued for appointment once the select list has lapsed. In paragraph 10 of the said judgment, it has been observed that: “10. Notwithstanding the aforesaid Statutory Rule and without applying the mind to the aforesaid Rule the High Court relying upon some earlier decisions of the Court came to hold that the list does not expire after a period of one year which on the face of it is erroneous. Further question that arises in this context is whether the High Court was justified in issuing the mandamus to the appellant to make recruitment of the Writ Petitioners. Under the Constitution, a mandamus can be issued by the Court when the applicant establishes that he has a legal right to the performance of legal duty by the party against whom the mandamus is sought and said right was subsisting on the date of the petition. The duty that may be enjoined by mandamus may be one imposed by the Constitution or a Statute or by Rules or orders having the force of law. But no mandamus can be issued to direct the Government to refrain from enforcing the provision of law or to do something which is contrary to law. This being the position and in view of the Statutory Rules contained in Rule 26 of the Recruitment Rules we really fail to understand how the High Court could issue the impugned direction to recruit the respondents who were included in the select list prepared on 4.4.87 and the list no longer survived after one year and the rights, it any, of persons included in the list did not subsist. In the course of hearing, the learned counsel for the respondents, no doubt have pointed out some materials which indicate that the Administrative Authorities have made the appointments from a list beyond the period of one year from its preparation. The learned counsel appearing for the appellants submitted that in some cases pursuance to the direction of the Court some appointments have been made but in some other cases it might have been done by the Appointing Authority. Even though we are persuaded to accept the submission of the learned counsel for the respondents that on some occasion appointments have been made by the Appointing Authority from a select list even after the expiry of one year from the date of selection but such illegal action of the Appointing Authority does not confer a right on an applicant to be enforced by a Court under Article 226 of the Constitution. We have no hesitation in coming to the conclusion that such appointments by the Appointing Authority have been made contrary to the provisions of the Statutory Rules for some unknown reason and we deprecate the practice adopted by the Appointing Authority in making such appointments contrary to the Statutory Rules. But at the same time it is difficult for us to sustain the direction given by the High Court since, admittedly, the life of the select list prepared on 4.4.87 had expired long since and the respondents who claim their rights to be appointed on the basis of such list did not have a subsisting right on the date they approached the High Court. We may not be understood to imply that the High Court must issue such direction, if the writ Petition was filed before the expiry of the period of one year and the same was disposed of after the expiry of the statutory period. In view of the aforesaid conclusion of ours it is not necessary to deal with the question whether the stand of the State Government that there existed one vacancy in the year 1987 is correct or not.” 

The Division Bench observed: "20. Therefore, it can be inferred that even if certain appointments were made beyond the life of the select list, such illegal acts would not confer any enforceable right upon others to seek similar relief through Court."

The Division Bench relied on the decision in Chairman/Managing Director, U.P. Power Corporation Ltd. vs. Ram Gopal reported in (2021) 13 SCC 225, wherein, the Supreme Court reiterated that a candidate who approaches the Court after expiry of the validity of a select list cannot claim appointment merely because others with lesser merit, who were vigilant and approached the Court in time, have been granted relief. The Court emphasized that delay defeats equity and that stale claims ought not to be entertained in writ jurisdiction. 

Justice Sinha observed: "22. Applying the aforesaid principles to the facts of the present case, it is evident that the respondent–writ petitioner did not assert his rights within the subsistence of the panel. In contrast,
the writ petitioners in C.W.J.C. Nos. 21219 of 2018 and 6259 of 2019 had approached the Court during the validity of the panel itself, i.e., within the two-year period. It is this distinguishing factor which weighed with the Division Bench while granting relief to them in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022. Thus, the foundation of the relief granted in those cases was timely assertion of rights, which is conspicuously absent in the case of the present respondent. 23. The contention advanced on behalf of the respondent that he had filed an interlocutory application in the year 2022 while earlier writ petitions were pending does not improve his case. The cause of action, if any, had arisen when the panel was in force and vacancies allegedly remained unfilled. The respondent, however, chose not to approach the Court during that period and remained indolent. The mere pendency of other litigations cannot extend the life of a statutory panel nor can it revive a stale cause of action."

Justice Sinha observed: "24. The reliance placed by the respondent on State of U.P. vs. Arvind Kumar Srivastava (Supra), is also misplaced. While paragraph 22.2 of the said judgment does lay down that similarly situated persons should ordinarily be treated alike, it equally carves out a clear exception in cases of delay and laches. The Hon’ble Supreme Court has specifically held that: '22.2 However, this principle is subject to well recognized exceptions in the form of laches and delays as well as acquiescence. Those persons who did not challenge the wrongful action in their cases and acquiesced into the same and woke up after long delay only because of the reason that their counterparts who had approached the Court earlier
in time succeeded in their efforts, then such employees cannot claim that the benefit of the judgment rendered in the case of similarly situated persons be extended to them. They would be treated as fence-sitters and laches and delays, and/or the acquiescence, would be a valid ground to dismiss their claim.' 25. Therefore, those people cannot claim parity and are liable to be treated as fence-sitters. The present case, in the considered view of this Court, falls squarely within the said exception."

Justice Sinha recollected that coordinate Benches of the High Court, in C.W.J.C. No. 1063 of 2024 and C.W.J.C. No. 4175 of 2024, rejected identical claims raised by similarly situated candidates on the ground of delay and laches. The Division Bench judgement reads: "The respondent’s case stands on no better footing and, in fact, suffers from the same infirmity. The submission that the authorities themselves were at fault in not operating the panel in terms of Rule 7 does not entitle the respondent to seek relief after the expiry of the panel. Even assuming there was an illegality on the part of the authorities, the law is well settled that such illegality must be challenged within a reasonable time. A litigant cannot be permitted to sleep over his rights and thereafter seek equitable relief at his convenience. 28. In view of the aforesaid discussion, this Court is of the considered opinion that the writ petition filed by the respondent–writ petitioner was clearly barred by delay, laches and acquiescence, having been instituted after the expiry of the statutory period of validity of the panel/wait-list dated 26.09.2018. The learned Single Judge, with respect, erred in overlooking this fundamental aspect and in entertaining the writ petition despite the respondent’s belated approach. 29. Accordingly, this issue is answered in favour of the appellant."

With regard to Issue no.(ii) the Division Bench considered whether the respondent–writ petitioner can be treated as a “fence-sitter” and thereby disentitled to relief, or whether he had approached the Court with due diligence so as to claim consideration. The concept of a “fence-sitter” has been consistently explained by the Supreme Court to denote those persons who, despite having a cause of action, choose not to assert their rights within a reasonable time and approach the Court only after others have succeeded in similar litigation. Such persons are ordinarily denied relief on the ground of delay, laches and acquiescence.

Justice Sinha relied on Supreme Court's decision in State of U.P. vs. Arvind Kumar Srivastava, reported in (2015) 1 SCC 347, wherein, while laying down the principle of parity, carved out a clear exception in paragraph 22, observing that those who do not challenge the wrongful action in time and wake up only after seeing the success of others, cannot claim the benefit of such judgments. The Court held that such persons are to be treated as “fence-sitters” and their claims can be legitimately rejected on the ground of delay and acquiescence.

He also drew on Supreme Court's decision in Shiba Shankar Mohapatra vs. State of Orissa, reported in (2010) 12 SCC 471, wherein the Court reiterated that a person who sleeps over his rights and allows the situation to settle cannot be permitted to disturb the same at a belated stage. The Court cautioned that stale claims should not be entertained, particularly where rights of others have crystallized in the meantime. Justice Sinha observed:"34. Applying the aforesaid principles to the present case, it is evident that the respondent–writ petitioner did not approach the Court during the subsistence of the panel/wait-list, which remained valid till 26.09.2020. On the contrary, the candidates who were granted relief in earlier rounds of litigation had approached the Court in the years 2018–2019 itself, i.e., within the validity period of the panel, asserting their rights in a timely manner. 35. The respondent, however, chose not to take recourse to legal remedy during this crucial period. His first attempt to intervene was made only on 09.05.2022 by filing I.A. No. 04 of 2022, which too was subsequently withdrawn. Thereafter, the writ petition came to be filed on 22.07.2022. By this time, not only had the panel expired nearly two years earlier, but even the earlier writ petitions had already been heard and were on the verge of being decided. 36. The submission advanced on behalf of the respondent that he cannot be treated as a fence-sitter because he approached the Court before the decision in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 does not merit acceptance. The relevant consideration is not whether he approached the Court before or after the appellate judgment, but whether he asserted his rights within the period when the cause of action was alive. In the present case, the cause of action arose during the validity of the panel, yet the respondent failed to act within that period. The distinction between vigilant litigants and fence-sitters is thus clearly borne out from the record. The earlier writ petitioners were vigilant and approached the Court at the appropriate time, whereas the respondent remained passive
and approached the Court only after a considerable lapse of time. The fact that he filed the writ petition before the appellate decision does not erase the delay which had already occurred.

Justice Sinha pointed out that in the judgment in Lt. Col. Suprita Chandel vs. Union of India (Supra), the Court extended the benefit to similarly situated persons in the absence of delay attributable to them. However, the said judgment itself recognizes that in exceptional cases, particularly where delay and acquiescence are present, the benefit may be denied. The present case clearly falls within such exception. He observed: "39. In the considered opinion of this Court, the conduct of the respondent reflects that he chose to remain on the sidelines and did not assert his rights when the opportunity was available. It is only after considerable delay that he approached the Court seeking parity with those who had been vigilant. Such conduct squarely attracts the doctrine of fence-sitting as explained by the Hon’ble Supreme Court. 40. Accordingly, this Court holds that the respondent–writ petitioner is liable to be treated as a “fence-sitter” and is not entitled to claim relief on the basis of parity with those candidates who had approached the Court with due diligence. This issue is, therefore, answered in favour of the appellant.

With regard to the Issue no.(iii), the High Court considered whether the learned Single Judge was justified in directing consideration of the respondent–writ petitioner for appointment in the light of Rule 7 of the Bihar Civil Court Staff (Class-III & IV) Rules, 2009, particularly when it is an admitted position that certain candidates, securing marks lower than that of the writ petitioner, have already been appointed pursuant to judicial orders. 

The Division Bench noted that Rule 7(12), (13) and (14) of the Rules, 2009 clearly envisage preparation of a common merit panel and its operation for a period of two years for the purpose of filling not only existing vacancies but also anticipated vacancies arising on account of non-joining, resignation, etc. The Division Bench, while deciding L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 and analogous cases (order dated 19.04.2023), has
already interpreted these provisions and returned a categorical finding that the authorities were under a statutory obligation to operate the panel for the said period and consider eligible candidates in order of merit.

The crucial question was not the existence of vacancies or the merit position alone, but whether such a direction for consideration can be extended to every candidate irrespective of the nature and scope of the earlier judgment. The Division Bench noted that "it is evident that the benefit flowing from the judgment dated 19.04.2023 was extended only to those candidates who were parties to the earlier litigation or who had asserted their rights within a reasonable time. The appellants have consistently contended that the said judgment is one in personam and not in rem. This distinction is of considerable importance. Even if it is accepted that certain candidates with lower marks have been appointed pursuant to orders passed in earlier rounds of litigation, although they came to the court within stipulated time frame, such appointments cannot automatically confer an enforceable right upon the present writ petitioner. The doctrine of equality enshrined under Article 14 is a positive concept and does not envisage repetition of an illegality."

In Lt. Col. Suprita Chandel vs. Union of India (Supra),  while the Hon’ble Supreme Court emphasized that
similarly situated persons should not be driven to litigation repeatedly, the same was in the context where the earlier judgment was not restricted in its operation. In the present case, however, there was nothing to indicate that the Division Bench intended its judgment in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 to operate universally for all candidates irrespective of their conduct or delay. It is also important to bear in mind that the direction issued by the Division Bench was for “consideration” of the cases of the appellants therein against vacancies arising within the validity period of the panel. Such a direction was clearly confined to those who had approached the Court and cannot be stretched to revive a lapsed panel for all candidates at large.

The Single Judge was primarily influenced by the fact that candidates with lesser marks had already been appointed. However, such reasoning overlooks the settled legal position that parity cannot be claimed in illegality or irregularity, and that each case must be tested on its own merits, including the conduct of the claimant and the scope of the earlier judicial directions. The Division Bench was of the considered opinion that the learned Single Judge was not justified in issuing a direction for consideration of the writ petitioner solely on the ground that persons with lower merit had been appointed. The direction fails to appreciate the limited and person-specific nature of the earlier judgments, as well as the settled principle that Article 14 does not envisage negative equality. "48. Accordingly, the issue is answered in favour of the appellants, holding that the impugned direction for consideration of the respondent–writ petitioner for appointment is unsustainable in law.

With regard to Issue no.(iv), teh Division Bench considered whether the impugned judgment and order dated July 9, 2025 passed by the Single Judge suffers from any legal infirmity, perversity or error apparent on the face of the record so as to warrant interference in exercise of the Letters Patent Appellate jurisdiction.

As part of the Division Bench Justice Sinha observed: "50. At the outset, it is well settled that the scope of
interference in an intra-court appeal is not as narrow as that under Article 226 against administrative action, yet the Appellate Court would ordinarily interfere where the judgment under appeal is found to be contrary to settled legal principles, based on misapplication of law, or resulting in manifest injustice. A finding can be said to be perverse when it is either based on no evidence, ignores material evidence, or applies incorrect legal standards
. 51. Examining the impugned judgment on the touchstone of the above principles, it appears that the learned Single Judge proceeded on two principal considerations: first, that the writ petitioner was similarly situated to those candidates who had succeeded in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 and analogous cases; and second, that candidates having lower marks had already been appointed and, therefore, denial of similar benefit to the writ petitioner would be discriminatory. 52. However, in arriving at the aforesaid conclusion, the learned Single Judge has failed to properly appreciate certain crucial aspects which go to the root of the matter. 53. Firstly, the learned Single Judge has treated the judgment rendered in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 as having a general or universal application, without examining whether the said judgment was intended to operate in rem or was confined to the parties before the Court. As has already been discussed, the direction issued therein was clearly for consideration of the cases of the appellants in those appeals. There is no indication that the Division Bench intended to extend the benefit automatically to all candidates forming part of the wait-list irrespective of their conduct or delay. The failure to draw this distinction has resulted in an erroneous extension of the benefit to the present writ petitioner. 54. Secondly, the learned Single Judge has placed substantial reliance on the fact that certain candidates with lower marks were appointed pursuant to judicial orders. While this factual position may not be in dispute, the legal inference drawn therefrom is flawed. The learned Single Judge, by directing consideration of the writ petitioner on the ground that persons with lesser marks have been appointed, has effectively applied the doctrine of negative equality, which is impermissible in law. This, in the considered opinion of this Court, constitutes a clear error in application of settled legal principles. 55. Thirdly, the issue of delay and laches, though noticed, has not been adequately appreciated in its proper legal perspective. The appellants had specifically contended that the writ petitioner approached the Court after a considerable lapse of time and, therefore, could not claim parity with those who had been vigilant in asserting their rights. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in State of U.P. vs. Arvind Kumar Srivastava (Supra) has clearly held that though similarly situated persons are ordinarily entitled to equal treatment, this principle is subject to exceptions, particularly in cases involving delay, laches and acquiescence. Persons who wake up after long delay cannot claim the same relief as those who approached the Court in time. 56. The impugned judgment, however, proceeds to hold that the writ petitioner is not a fence-sitter without adequately reconciling this finding with the admitted timeline of events and the conduct of the petitioner. Such a conclusion, without proper analysis of the legal standards governing delay and acquiescence, renders the finding vulnerable. 57. Fourthly, the learned Single Judge has also not given due weight to the fact that the panel/wait-list in question had a statutory life of two years under Rule 7 of the Rules, 2009. Once the panel had lapsed, any direction for consideration would have to be strictly in accordance with law and cannot be issued in a routine manner, particularly when such direction has the effect of unsettling subsequent recruitment processes."

In the penultimate paragraphs, the Justice Sinha observed:" 58. In view of the aforesaid discussion, this Court finds that the impugned judgment suffers from misapplication of law, particularly in relation to (i) the scope and applicability of the earlier Division Bench judgment, (ii) the impermissible reliance on negative equality, and (iii) inadequate consideration of delay and laches. These errors go to the root of the matter and cannot be said to be mere errors of appreciation. 59. Accordingly, it is held that the impugned judgment and order dated 09.07.2025 does suffer from legal infirmity and error apparent on the face of the record, warranting interference by this Court in exercise of its Letters Patent Appellate jurisdiction.

Regulation of fees of Advocates

The Bar Council of India, a statutory body under the Advocates Act, 1961 has informed Union Ministry of Law and Justice that the standard of professional conduct and etiquettes for lawyers has been prescribed under the Chapter-II, Part-VI of the Bar Council of India Rules framed under the Advocates Act, 1961. 

The relevant rule in this regard reads:-"11. An advocate is bound to accept any brief in the Courts or tribunals or before any other authorities in or before which he proposes to practice at a fee consistent with his standing at the Bar and the nature of the case."

The BCI does not control or have a say over the maximum professional fee which can be charged by a legal practitioner. Accordingly, Advocates charge their fee from their clients as per their standing and seniority in the Bar and the Bar Council of India does not control the fee charged by the advocates.

The maximum fees of legal practioners of the Supreme Court of India and High Courts of different States is not fixed. 


Wednesday, March 25, 2026

Patna High Court to condole death of Raghib Ahsan, a senior advocate, Advocate Dr. Indira Lakshmi & other five advocates

There will be a Full Court Reference on March 26, 2026, in the Centenary Hall of Patna High Court to condole the sad demise of Raghib Ahsan, Senior Advocate along with Dr. Indira Lakshmi, Randhir Kumar Singh, Ras Bihari Thakur, Gajendra Prasad Yadav, Braj Nandan Singh, and Ravineshwar Dayal @ Ravi, Advocates of the Court. 

On March  18, 2026, in one of his last appearances, Raghib Ahsan argued in Sk. Md. Nasim @ Md. Nasim & Ors. vs Sk. Saghir Alam (2026) before Justice Khatim Reza of the High Court. He was assisted by Wasi Akhtar counsel for the appellants. This Second Appeal was filed by the defendant/appellants against the judgment and decree of affirmance. Title Suit No. 196 of 1989/156 of 2004 was filed by the plaintiff/respondent for declaration of his right, title and possession over the suit land and the defendants had got no concern on the suit land and also for recovery of possession if the plaintiff was dispossessed from the suit land by the defendants during the pendency of the suit. The suit was decreed by the Munsif-1, Gopalganj by the judgment and decree dated August 31, 2006, against which, the defendants filed Title Appeal No. 167 of 2006, which was dismissed by the Additional District Judge-VIII, Gopalganj by its judgment and decree dated September 27, 2016, which was under challenged in the instant Second Appeal.

Both the courts below after considering the pleadings and evidence of the parties, came to a definite conclusion that on the basis of registered gift deed dated May 19, 1979, the right, title and possession of the plaintiff was proved by the valid documents, such as registered deed of gift, Mutation order as well as rent receipts. It appeared from the judgment of the First Appellate Court, which was final court of facts, the First Appellate Court after considering each and every issued framed by the trial court and came to a separate and independent finding. The First Appellate Court clearly observed that from Paragraph no. 31 of the written statement, it appeared that they clearly stated that their father Abdul Rahman wanted to divide his property in between his two sons i.e. the plaintiff and defendant no. 1, but on going through documentary evidence as available on records, it was  found that said Abhul Rahman executed deed of gift in respect to the suit land in favour of the plaintiff voluntarily which is evident from other documentary evidence. Notably, certified copy of Ekrarnama dated September 4, 1984 executed by the father of the plaintiff and defendant no. 1 in favour of Sk. Saghir Alam (plaintiff). Mutation Case No. 798 of 1985-86 filed between Sk. Saghir Alam (plaintiff) Vs. Sk. Abdul Rahman and certified copy of Mutation Order passed in the aforesaid mutation case in favour of the plaintiff have also clarified that the registered deed of gift dated May 19, 1979 was correct, legal and valid documents and the same was also supported by the reports of the Fingerprint Expert. The First Appellate Court after perusing the oral and documentary evidence held that the deed of cancellation dated August 30, 1979 was forged and fabricated. The trial court rightly and correctly decided the issues in favour of the plaintiff/respondent. 

On scrutinising the oral as well as documentary evidence, it was also held that the alleged cancellation deed dated August 30, 1979 were all forged, fabricated and void documents. The suit was not barred by law of limitation and the suit as framed and filed by the plaintiff against the defendants/appellants was maintainable. The First Appellate Court found no infirmities in the judgment of the the trial court. So far as the point that the First Appellate Court failed to formulate points of determination as required under Order XLI Rule 31 of the Code of Civil Procedure (in short 'CPC') was concerned, it was apparent from the judgment of the First Appellate Court that it had considered all the issues framed by the trial court independently and cited reasons for recording decision. There was no doubt that it was desirable that the appellate court should comply with all the requirements of Order XLI Rule 31 CPC, but if it was possible to make out from the judgment that there was substantial compliance with the said requirements and that justice had not thereby suffered, that would be sufficient. Where the appellate court considered the entire evidence on record and discussed the same in detail, came to any conclusion that its findings were supported by reasons even though the point was not framed by the appellate court, there was substantial compliance with the provision of Order XLI Rule 31 CPC and the judgment was not in any manner vitiated by the absence of a point of determination. The aforesaid view was taken by the Supreme Court in G. Amalorpavam & Ors. Vs. R.C. Diocese.

In the case, the appellate court had considered all the oral and documentary evidences adduced by the parties and considered the issues as framed by the learned trial court separately and given its findings independently. The father of the plaintiff, namely, Abdul Rahman had executed deed of gift in respect of the suit land in favour of the plaintiff followed by delivery of possession and the name of the plaintiff was entered in the revenue records through due process of law. The said registered deed of gift was challenged by the defendants in any competent Civil Court. 

The Registrar or Sub-Registrar had no jurisdiction to cancel the registered Gift Deed or Sale Deed. Moreover, the First Appellate Court held that the cancellation deed dated August 30, 1979, A sale deed dated October 13, 1984 executed by Md. Muslim in favour of Sk. Rahman; sale deed dated October 12, 1984 executed by Sk. Rahman in favour of Sk. Md. Yasin and deed of gift dated October 12, 1984 executed by Abdul Rahman in favour of Sk. Md. Nasim were forged fabricated and void documents on the basis of material oral as well as documentary evidences.

Justice Reza concluded: "7. In view of the aforesaid facts and circumstances of the case as well as materials on record, it is quite apparent that the judgment and decree of the courts below are covered by the findings of facts and no question of law much less substantial questions of law arises for consideration in the instant Second Appeal.8. Accordingly, this Second Appeal is dismissed at the stage of Admission under Order XLI Rule 11 CPC. 9. Pending interlocutory application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of."

As to Dr. Indira Lakshmi (65), the woman lawyer practicing at the High Court and and Civil Court, her partially-burnt body was found at her residence in Rajendra Nagar locality under Kadam Kuan police station area of Patna, Bihar on February 11, 2026. She was found dead under mysterious circumstances at her residence. Her body was recovered from the two-storey house located on Rajendra Nagar Road No. 2. The lady advocate used to live alone in the house as her husband, Amarendra Kumar, resides in Ranchi, Jharkhand, while her daughter lives in Bengaluru. The tenants residing in the building noticed the partially burnt body inside the house on the morning of February 11. They informed the police. It is not clear as to whether the death was accidental or the result of a planned crime. The body was sent to Patna Medical College and Hospital (PMCH) for post-mortem examination, which was conducted in the presence of family members. The lawyers’ associationdemanded a thorough probe into this case. The caretaker reported that Lakshmi was sitting in the verandah until midnight. She had returned to Patna on February 1 after visiting her husband in Ranchi. She had not been going to court after that. It is not clear as to why had she stopped going to the court. 







 

Monday, March 23, 2026

Justice Abhay S. Oka to act as Ombudsman of Bihar Cricket Association, after submission of Justice L. Nageswara Rao's recommendations

In Bihar Cricket Association vs. Bihar Cricket Association & Ors. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of J.B. Pardiwala nd K.V. Viswanathan passed a 3-page order dated March 20, 2026 whereby, it appointed Justice Abhay S. Oka, former Judge of the Supreme Court of India to act as the Ombudsman of the Bihar Cricket Association.  

By its order dated August 12, 2025, the Court had appointed Justice L. Nageswara Rao, former Judge of the Supreme Court of India as the Ombudsman of the Bihar Cricket Association. The appointment was made to work out the modalities for the smooth functioning of the Association. As Ombudsman, Justice Rao forwarded his exhaustive report alongwith a separate note.The Court took the Report on record. Justice Rao requested that he may now be relieved from the assignment. The Court expressed gratitude towards him. 

Now Justice Oka is to take charge as the Ombudsman. The fees of the Ombudsman, along with other modalities, shall be fixed in consultation with the parties. The Court's order reads: "11. We direct the Bihar Cricket Association to pay Rs. 5,00,000/- (Rupees Five Lakh) to Mr. Viduspat Singhania, Managing Partner of Krida Legal and his Associates, who assisted the learned Ombudsman in the enquiry and preparation of the report. 12. Since the report is now on record, the Registry shall also provide a digital copy of the report prepared by the learned Ombudsman to all the parties in the present litigation. 13. We shall look into all other recommendations made by the Former Ombudsman on the next date of hearing."

Supreme Court stays operation of Justice Sandeep Kumar's order, and proceedings pursuant to cognizance order by S.D.J.M., Buxar

In Kamla Devi @ Kamla Sharma & Ors. vs. State of Bihar & Anr. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices Sanjay Karol and Augustine George Masih passed a 2-page long order dated March 20, 2026, wherein it stayed the operation of the order dated January 13, 2026 passed by Justice Sandeep Kumar of Patna High Court. Supreme Court's order reads: "....further proceedings arising out of Complaint Case No. 1006/2009, including proceedings pursuant to the cognizance order dated 27.07.2010 passed by the learned S.D.J.M., Buxar, shall remain stayed." 

Justice Kumar has passed the order upon hearing the application filed for quashing the order dated Juky 27, 2010 passed by the S.D.J.M., Buxar by which, cognizance was taken under Sections 498A and 323 of the Indian Penal Code against the petitioners. This order was challenged by the petitioner in the High Court in the year 2016 i.e., after more than six years, after an inordinate delay. 

Justice Kumar observed that this application was dismissed solely on the ground of delay and laches with liberty to the petitioners to raise all the grounds at the stage of discharge. He wrote: "5. If such an application is filed, the same shall be considered by the Court below in view of the law laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Kanchan Kumar Vs. The State of Bihar reported in (2022) 9 SCC 577. 6. Interim protection granted to the petitioners by order dated 06.09.2023 is hereby vacated. 7. Let a copy of this order be communicated to the Principal District & Sessions Judge, Buxar through FAX for its compliance forthwith."