Thursday, September 24, 2026

Patna High Court's Division Bench upholds verdict by 6th Additional District and Sessions Judge, Patna City, records its deep appreciation for research assistance rendered by Aditya Shekhar, Ribhava Raj, the Legal Researchers in a murder case from 2017

In Ravi Kumar @ Singhrwa @ Singhara vs. The State of Bihar (2026), Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices Bibek Chaudhuri and Rana Vikram Singh delivered a 40-page long judgement dated September 24, 2026, wherein, it concluded:"9. Conclusion and Operative Order (i) We have carefully considered the rival submissions advanced on behalf of the parties, examined the entire oral and documentary evidence available on record, and applied the settled legal principles discussed above. (ii) The medical evidence of PW-1 Dr. Mukesh Kumar, supported by the post-mortem report (Ext. 1), conclusively establishes that the deceased Krishna Prasad @ Pahalwan died a homicidal death as a result of a firearm injury sustained on the back of the chest. The occurrence of a fatal shooting is, therefore, not in doubt. (iii) The principal question for determination is whether the prosecution has proved beyond reasonable doubt that it was the appellant who fired the fatal shot. (iv) On a comprehensive and independent appraisal of the evidence, we find that PW-2 Prem Kumar is a natural witness whose presence at the shop of the deceased is fully explained. He has given a consistent account of having seen the appellant armed with a pistol, the deceased attempting to flee, the appellant opening fire, and the bullet hitting the deceased on the back. His evidence finds material corroboration from the testimony of PW-3 Dilip Kumar Gupta and PW-5 Sudhir Kamti, who reached the place of occurrence immediately on hearing the sound of firing. PW-5 has specifically deposed that he saw the appellant running away from the spot within a few minutes of the incident. This circumstance is proximate in time and lends assurance to the version of PW-2. (v) The oral dying declarations attributed to the deceased and deposed to by PW-2, PW-3, PW-4 and PW-6 are consistent in material particulars in naming the appellant as the assailant. Although these witnesses are related or closely associated with the deceased, their evidence on this aspect has withstood cross-examination and finds support from the overall circumstances of the case. The medical evidence corroborates the nature and location of the injury. The motive suggested by the prosecution, namely the outstanding loan and the prior threat, provides an additional link in the chain. (vi) The discrepancies regarding the exact date and time of the occurrence, the non-recovery of the weapon and the projectile, and certain omissions in the investigation, though pointed out with some force, do not go to the root of the prosecution case. They are not sufficient to discard the reliable ocular account and the consistent oral dying declarations. The confessional statement recorded by the Investigating Officer has been kept out of consideration in view of the bar contained in Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act. (vii) Having regard to the cumulative effect of the evidence of PW-2, the corroborative circumstances spoken to by PW-3 and PW-5, the consistent oral dying declarations, and the medical evidence, we are of the considered opinion that the prosecution has succeeded in proving the guilt of the appellant beyond reasonable doubt. The findings recorded by the learned trial court do not warrant interference by this Court. (viii) In the result, the appeal fails and is hereby dismissed. (ix) The judgment of conviction, dated 29.06.2018 and the order of sentence, dated 05.07.2018 passed by the learned 6th Additional District and Sessions Judge, Patna City, in Sessions Trial No. 40 of 2018 arising out of Agamkuan P.S. Case No. 396 of 2017 are affirmed. The appellant Ravi Kumar @ Singharwa shall serve the sentence awarded by the trial court...."

It concluded: "(xi) Before parting with the judgment, this court places on record its deep appreciation for the research and assistance rendered by Mr. Aditya Shekhar and Mr. Ribhava Raj, Legal Researchers attached with this court." S. K. Lal was the senior counsel on behalf of the appellants who was assisted by advocates Madhaw Prasad Yadav, Arvind Kumar and Pramod Kumar. Anil Kumar was the counsel for the informant and Shashi Bala Verma was the APP. 

The criminal appeal was preferred by the sole appellant Ravi Kumar @ Singharwa against the judgment of conviction dated June 29, 2018 and the order of sentence dated July 5, 2018 passed by the 6th Additional District and Sessions Judge, Patna City, in Sessions Trial of 2018 arising out of Agamkuan P.S. Case of 2017, whereby and whereunder the appellant has been convicted for the offences punishable under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code and Section 27 of the Arms Act, 1959.

By the impugned order of sentence, the appellant was sentenced to undergo rigorous imprisonment for life and to pay a fine of 20,000 for the offence under Section 302 of the IPC. He was also sentenced to undergo rigorous imprisonment for three years and to pay a fine of 2,000 for the offence under Section 27 of the Arms Act. Both the sentences were directed to run concurrently. The appellant was arrested during investigation and has remained in custody since then. After commitment of the case to the Court of Session, charge under Section 302 of the IPC and Section 27 of the Arms Act was framed against him on March 5, 2018. The appellant pleaded not guilty and claimed to be tried. Upon conclusion of the trial, the trial court convicted and sentenced him. The appeal had challenged the judgment of conviction and order of sentence. 

The case of the prosecution emerged from the fardbeyan of the informant Annu Gupta (PW-6), wife
of the deceased, is that the deceased Krishna Prasad @ Pahalwan was running a snack shop under the name and style of “Maa Sheetla Sweet” in front of Sheetla Temple since the year 1996. The brother of the informant, namely Prem Kumar (PW-2), was also associated with the said shop. The appellant Ravi
Kumar @ Singharwa had worked in the said shop as a maker of singhara and litti for about ten years but had left the job a few days prior to the occurrence. On 25.08.2017 at about 7:00 p.m., the
deceased, after closing his work for the day, went to Tulsi
Mandi adjacent to the railway line near Sheetla Mandir for
getting himself shaved. While returning, he met the appellant.
On noticing something in the pocket of the appellant, the
deceased searched the same and found a pistol. The deceased
questioned the appellant as to why he was carrying a pistol
and stated that he would inform the appellant’s mother. The
appellant became enraged.
(iv) Thereafter, the deceased returned to his shop,
consumed bhunja, and after some time started proceeding
towards his house. When he had barely covered a short
distance of about fifty yards from the shop, the appellant, who
was sitting there armed with a pistol, pointed the same
towards the head of the deceased and opened fire. The
deceased pushed the appellant and attempted to flee; however,
the bullet hit him on the back and he fell down at the spot. The
appellant managed to escape from the place of occurrence.
(v) On hearing the sound of the gunshot, several
persons including the staff of the shop assembled there. The
injured was shifted to Rajeshwar Hospital for treatment. The
informant and her son were informed and they reached the
hospital. According to the prosecution, the deceased, while
undergoing treatment and while still conscious, disclosed that
it was the appellant who had shot him. It is further the case of
the prosecution that the appellant and his father had taken a
substantial amount by way of loan from the deceased and,
whenever the deceased demanded repayment, the appellant
used to threaten to kill him. The occurrence is alleged to have
been committed at the behest of the father of the appellant.
(vi) On the basis of the fardbeyan of the informant
recorded at the hospital, Agamkuan P.S. Case No. 396 of 2017
was registered under Sections 341, 324, 307, 504/34 of the
Indian Penal Code and Section 27 of the Arms Act. During the
course of treatment, the injured succumbed to his injuries after
about two days. Upon completion of investigation, the
Investigating Officer submitted charge-sheet under Section
302 of the Indian Penal Code and Section 27 of the Arms Act
only against the present appellant. Cognizance was taken and
the case was committed to the Court of Session, culminating
in the trial that has given rise to the present appeal.
3. Trial Court Findings
(i) The learned trial court, upon appreciation of the
evidence adduced during the trial, recorded the following
material findings:
(a) The prosecution examined seven witnesses in
all. PW-1 Dr. Mukesh Kumar is the Autopsy Surgeon who
conducted the post-mortem examination on the dead body of
the deceased on 27.08.2017 and proved the post-mortem
report (Ext. 1). PW-2 Prem Kumar (brother of the informant
and associated with the shop of the deceased), PW-3 Dilip
Kumar Gupta and PW-5 Sudhir Kamti were examined as
witnesses to the occurrence. PW-4 Anchit Raj is the son of the
deceased and PW-6 Annu Gupta is the informant and wife of
the deceased. PW-7 Suchit Kumar is the Investigating Officer
of the case.
(b) On behalf of the defence, one witness (DW-1
Kashi Nath Chandravansi) was examined and certain
documents relating to a prior criminal case against the
deceased were marked as exhibits.
(c) The learned trial court held that PW-2 Prem
Kumar is an eye-witness to the occurrence. According to the
trial court, this witness had seen the appellant threatening the
deceased with a pistol, the deceased attempting to flee, the
appellant opening fire, the bullet hitting the deceased on the
back, and the deceased falling down. The trial court further
held that PW-3 Dilip Kumar Gupta and PW-5 Sudhir Kamti
reached the place of occurrence immediately on hearing the
sound of firing; PW-5 specifically claimed to have seen the
appellant running away from the spot. The evidence of these
witnesses was found to be consistent and reliable.
(d) The learned trial court placed significant
reliance on the oral dying declarations alleged to have been
made by the deceased. It held that the deceased, while still
conscious, had disclosed to PW-2, PW-3, PW-4 and PW-6 that
it was the appellant Ravi Kumar @ Singharwa who had shot
him. These statements were held to be relevant and admissible
under Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and
were found to be consistent and free from doubt.
(e) The medical evidence of PW-1 was held to
corroborate the prosecution version. The post-mortem report
disclosed an ante-mortem firearm entry wound on the left side
of the back of the chest with blackening and tattooing, and the
cause of death was opined to be haemorrhage and shock due
to the chest injury caused by a firearm.
(f) The trial court accepted the motive suggested by
the prosecution, namely that the appellant and his father had
taken a substantial loan from the deceased and that the
appellant had earlier threatened the deceased with death when
repayment was demanded.
(g) As regards the discrepancy in the date of
occurrence (some witnesses having stated the month as
October instead of August), the learned trial court observed
that witnesses cannot be expected to possess a photographic
memory and that the said discrepancy stood clarified by the
fardbeyan and the endorsement thereon, both of which clearly
mentioned the date as 25/26.08.2017. The discrepancy was
therefore held to be minor and immaterial.
(h) The trial court further referred to the
confessional statement of the appellant (Ext. 6) recorded by
the Investigating Officer. The defence evidence seeking to
establish the criminal antecedents of the deceased was held to
be irrelevant to the determination of the guilt of the appellant
in the present case.
(i) On the basis of the above findings, the learned
trial court concluded that the prosecution had successfully
proved the charges under Section 302 of the Indian Penal
Code and Section 27 of the Arms Act against the appellant
beyond reasonable doubt, and accordingly convicted and
sentenced him as noted earlier.
4. Submissions on behalf of the Appellant
(i) Learned counsel appearing on behalf of the
appellant assailed the impugned judgment of conviction and
order of sentence on several grounds.
(ii) It was firstly submitted that the learned trial
court committed a serious error in recording a finding of guilt
against the appellant when none of the prosecution witnesses
can be said to be reliable eye-witnesses to the actual
occurrence. Learned counsel contended that a careful reading
of the evidence of PW-2 Prem Kumar, PW-3 Dilip Kumar
Gupta and PW-5 Sudhir Kamti would show that their presence
at the precise moment of firing is either unnatural or not free
from doubt. It was argued that the evidence of these witnesses,
even if accepted at face value, is largely in the nature of post-
occurrence testimony and that the trial court erred in treating
PW-2 as a wholly reliable eye-witness.
(iii) It was next submitted that the evidence of PW-4
Anchit Raj and PW-6 Annu Gupta (the informant) is purely
hearsay in character insofar as the actual act of firing is
concerned. Learned counsel urged that these witnesses were
admittedly not present at the place of occurrence and reached
the hospital only after receiving information. Their testimony,
therefore, could not have been used to establish the identity of
the assailant except to the limited extent of the alleged oral
dying declarations.
(iv) Strong reliance was placed on the contention
that the alleged oral dying declarations do not satisfy the
requirements of Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872. It was argued that the statements attributed to the
deceased were made only to highly interested witnesses (wife,
son, brother-in-law and a close associate), that there is no
contemporaneous record of such statements, and that the
prosecution has failed to establish that the deceased was in a
fit state of mind and body at the time of making the alleged
declarations. Learned counsel submitted that the trial court
mechanically applied Section 32(1) without subjecting the
alleged dying declarations to the close scrutiny required by
law.
(v) It was further contended that the medical
evidence of PW-1, while establishing a homicidal death by
firearm, does not corroborate the precise manner and genesis
of the occurrence as projected by the prosecution witnesses.
The non-recovery of the weapon of offence and the bullet was
also highlighted as a significant lacuna.
(vi) Learned counsel pointed out material
discrepancies in the prosecution evidence, particularly with
regard to the date of the occurrence (some witnesses having
deposed the month as October instead of August), the exact
time, the sequence of events, and the presence of various
persons at the spot. It was submitted that these discrepancies,
when viewed cumulatively, go to the root of the matter and
render the prosecution version unreliable.
(vii) Attention was also invited to the fact that the
confessional statement of the appellant (Ext. 6) recorded by
the Investigating Officer is hit by Section 25 of the Indian
Evidence Act and could not have been relied upon even for
limited purposes. The investigation was described as defective
on account of non-examination of independent witnesses,
delayed recording of statements, and failure to collect material
scientific evidence.
(viii) It was lastly submitted that the appellant is a
first offender, that the evidence on record does not establish
the charges beyond reasonable doubt, and that the impugned
judgment of conviction and order of sentence are liable to be
set aside. In the alternative, a prayer was made for suspension
of sentence and grant of bail during the pendency of the
appeal.

5. Submissions on behalf of the State
(i) Learned Additional Public Prosecutor appearing
on behalf of the State supported the impugned judgment of
conviction and order of sentence and submitted that the appeal
is devoid of merit.
(ii) It was contended that the learned trial court has
correctly appreciated the evidence on record and has recorded
concurrent findings of fact which do not warrant interference
in appellate jurisdiction. Learned counsel submitted that PW-2
Prem Kumar is a natural and reliable eye-witness to the
occurrence. His presence at the shop of the deceased, with
whom he was associated in business, is fully explained.
According to the State, this witness has given a consistent
account of having seen the appellant armed with a pistol, the
deceased attempting to flee, the appellant opening fire, and the
bullet hitting the deceased on the back.
(iii) It was further submitted that the evidence of
PW-2 finds material corroboration from the testimony of PW-
3 Dilip Kumar Gupta and PW-5 Sudhir Kamti. Both these
witnesses reached the place of occurrence immediately on
hearing the sound of firing. PW-5 has specifically deposed
that he saw the appellant running away from the spot. Their
presence is natural as they were associated with the shop of
the deceased, and their evidence lends assurance to the
version of the eye-witness.
(iv) Strong reliance was placed on the multiple oral
dying declarations made by the deceased. Learned Additional
Public Prosecutor submitted that the deceased, while still
conscious and soon after sustaining the injury, clearly named
the appellant as the assailant before PW-2, PW-3, PW-4 and
PW-6. These statements, being consistent and made at the
earliest opportunity, fully satisfy the requirements of Section
32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and constitute
relevant and reliable evidence pointing to the guilt of the
appellant.
(v) The medical evidence of PW-1 was described as
fully corroborative of the ocular account. The post-mortem
report establishes an ante-mortem firearm entry wound on the
back of the chest with blackening and tattooing, which is
consistent with the prosecution version that the deceased was
shot from behind while trying to escape.
(vi) As regards the discrepancy in the month of the
occurrence (August/October), it was submitted that the same
is minor and stands clarified by the contemporaneous
documents, namely the fardbeyan and the endorsement
thereon. Such discrepancies are natural and do not go to the
root of the prosecution case.
(vii) Learned counsel for the State further submitted
that the motive of the occurrence, i.e., the outstanding loan
and the prior threat held out by the appellant, stands
established through the evidence of the informant and other
witnesses. The non-recovery of the weapon, though a lacuna,
is not fatal in the face of reliable ocular and dying-declaration
evidence. The confessional statement recorded by the
Investigating Officer was referred to only as a supporting
circumstance.
(viii) It was lastly contended that the prosecution
has proved the charges under Section 302 of the Indian Penal
Code and Section 27 of the Arms Act against the appellant
beyond reasonable doubt. The learned trial court has assigned
cogent reasons for convicting the appellant, and the impugned
judgment does not suffer from any perversity or infirmity
warranting interference by this Court. The appeal, it was
prayed, deserves to be dismissed. 

6. Points for Determination
On the basis of the rival submissions advanced on
behalf of the parties and upon perusal of the impugned
judgment and the evidence available on record, the following
points arise for determination in the present appeal:
(i) Whether the prosecution has been able to prove
beyond reasonable doubt that the appellant, Ravi Kumar @
Singharwa, intentionally caused the death of the deceased
Krishna Prasad @ Pahalwan by firing at him with a firearm on
25.08.2017?
(ii) Whether the oral statements attributed to the
deceased, alleged to have been made shortly after the
occurrence and naming the appellant as the assailant,
constitute reliable and admissible dying declarations under
Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and whether
they inspire confidence?
(iii) Whether the evidence of PW-2 Prem Kumar
(claimed to be an eye-witness) and the evidence of PW-3
Dilip Kumar Gupta and PW-5 Sudhir Kamti (immediate post-
occurrence witnesses) is natural, consistent, reliable and
sufficient to establish the complicity of the appellant?

7. Analysis of Evidence
(i) The prosecution has examined seven witnesses.
PW-1 is the doctor who conducted the post-mortem; PW-2,
PW-3 and PW-5 are witnesses concerning the occurrence and
its immediate aftermath; PW-4 and PW-6 speak principally
about what was allegedly disclosed by the deceased; and PW-
7 is the Investigating Officer. The defence has examined one
witness, DW-1.
(ii) The evidence, therefore, has to be considered in
its proper compartments. The medical evidence establishes the
nature and cause of death; the question of identity of the
assailant rests upon the ocular and surrounding circumstances;
and the alleged statements made by the deceased require
separate consideration under Section 32(1) of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872.

A. Medical Evidence (PW-1)
(i) PW-1 Dr. Mukesh Kumar conducted the post-
mortem examination on the body of Krishna Prasad @
Pahalwan on 27.08.2017 and proved the post-mortem report
(Ext. 1). The external examination disclosed an ante-mortem
firearm entry wound measuring ¼" × ¼" over the left side of
the back of the chest, one inch away from the mid-line at the
level of the fifth thoracic vertebra, with inverted margins and
surrounded by blackening and tattooing over an area of 8" ×
7". There were also surgical stitched wounds. On dissection,
the chest cavity contained about 500 ml of blood and blood
clots. The projectile had pierced the fifth thoracic vertebra and
the apical area of the right lung. No metallic object was
recovered from the body. The doctor opined that the cause of
death was haemorrhage and shock due to the chest injury and
that Injury No. 1 was caused by a firearm. The time since
death was estimated at 6 to 18 hours.
(ii) The medical evidence thus establishes that the
deceased sustained a fatal firearm injury from behind and that
the death was homicidal in nature. It lends medical support to
the prosecution version that the deceased had been shot in the
back.
(iii) At the same time, the evidence of PW-1 has
definite limits. The doctor does not identify the assailant. The
non-recovery of the projectile is also part of the medical
record. Consequently, while PW-1 establishes the nature and
cause of death, the identity of the person who fired the shot
has to be determined from the remaining evidence.
PW-2 Prem Kumar
(i) PW-2 Prem Kumar is an important witness
because he claims to have been present at the time of the
occurrence. According to him, on 25.08.2017 at about 8:00
p.m., while he was at the shop, the deceased proceeded ahead
and, after covering about 50 steps, the appellant Ravi @
Singharwa took out a pistol, threatened him and fired. The
deceased sustained injury on the back, fell down, and was
thereafter taken for treatment. PW-2 has identified the accused in Court.
(ii) The importance of PW-2’s evidence lies in the
fact that, unlike PW-4 and PW-6, he does not derive his
knowledge of the identity of the assailant solely from a
statement allegedly made by the deceased at the hospital. His
account is presented as direct observation of the occurrence
itself. He has further stated that the deceased, while being
taken to the hospital, was still conscious and was naming the
person who had shot him. At the same time, he does not claim
personal knowledge of the alleged monetary transaction or of
the precise conversation which allegedly took place between
the deceased and the accused before the firing.
(iii) His evidence has to be tested for naturalness of
presence, consistency with the evidence of PW-3 and PW-5,
consistency with the medical evidence, and consistency with
the earliest version recorded during investigation. The
material question is whether his account of the actual firing
withstands scrutiny when read as a whole.
PW-3 Dilip Kumar Gupta
(i) PW-3 Dilip Kumar Gupta states that he was a
friend of the deceased and had accompanied him for shaving.
After returning to the shop, the deceased started for home.
PW-3 thereafter heard the sound of firing, went to the spot
along with others, and found the deceased lying on the ground
with a firearm injury on the back. He participated in taking the
injured to the hospital and has deposed that the deceased
disclosed the name of the appellant as the assailant.
(ii) PW-3 is not an eye-witness to the actual act of
firing. His direct observation begins from the point when he
heard the gunshot and reached the place of occurrence. The
portion of his testimony relating to the identity of the assailant
is based on the statement attributed to the deceased and must
therefore be evaluated under Section 32(1) of the Evidence
Act.
PW-4 Anchit Raj
PW-4 Anchit Raj, the son of the deceased, has
candidly admitted that he was not present at the place of
occurrence. He received information from PW-2, went to the
hospital, and has deposed that his father, while conscious, told
him that Ravi had shot him. His evidence is relevant only as a
recipient of the alleged oral dying declaration and cannot be
treated as ocular evidence of the firing.
PW-5 Sudhir Kamti
(i) PW-5 Sudhir Kamti states that he was at the shop
when he heard the sound of firing. He reached the spot within
about 2-3 minutes, saw the deceased lying injured, and saw
the appellant running away from the place. He also helped in
taking the injured to the hospital.
(ii) PW-5 does not claim to have seen the actual
firing. His evidence is circumstantial in nature: he heard the
shot, reached the spot almost immediately, found the deceased
injured, and saw the appellant fleeing. The circumstance of
the accused being seen running away shortly after the firing is
relevant and proximate in time, but it cannot by itself be
equated with proof of the act of firing. His evidence can
consequently provide corroborative circumstances, but the
fact of fleeing cannot by itself be equated with proof of the
actual firing.
PW-6 Annu Gupta (Informant)
(i) PW-6 Annu Gupta, the wife of the deceased and
the informant, has stated that on the night of the incident, she
received information from her brother (PW-2) and went to the
hospital with her son. According to her, the deceased was
conscious and told her that Ravi had shot him. She has,
however, clearly admitted in cross-examination that neither
she nor her son had witnessed the occurrence.
(ii) Her evidence regarding the identity of the
assailant is therefore dependent on the alleged oral dying
declaration. The trial court noticed that she had at one place
stated the date of occurrence as 25.10.2017 instead of
25.08.2017. While the contemporaneous documents such as
fardbeyan and endorsement consistently mention August
2017, the discrepancy remains a relevant factor to be weighed
while assessing the overall reliability of the prosecution
version.
PW-7 Investigating Officer
(i) PW-7 Suchit Kumar has proved the formal steps
of investigation, the fardbeyan, endorsements, charge-sheet
and other documents. His cross-examination, however, brings
out several omissions: non-recovery of the weapon and the
projectile, non-examination of independent public witnesses,
and certain deficiencies in the recording of statements.
(ii) These lapses assume significance because the
identity of the assailant is the central issue. An investigation is
not to be discarded for every omission, yet omissions that
could have provided objective corroboration or contradiction
cannot be ignored.
(iii) The confessional statement of the appellant
(Ext. 6) recorded by the Investigating Officer when the
appellant was apprehended in a different case is hit by Section
25 of the Indian Evidence Act and cannot be used as
substantive evidence against him.

Defence Evidence
DW-1 has proved documents (bail bond relating to
an earlier Alaganj Police Station case and connected
signatures/documents) relating to a prior criminal case against
the deceased. Even if the deceased had criminal antecedents,
that circumstance does not, by itself, constitute a defence to
the present charge or establish that the appellant was not the
assailant. The defence evidence does not point to any
alternative assailant or offer any substantive explanation for
the fatal firearm injury.
Statement under Section 313 Cr.P.C.
(i) The appellant was examined under Section 313
of the Code of Criminal Procedure. All the material
incriminating circumstances appearing in the prosecution
evidence were put to him. The appellant denied the allegations
and the incriminating circumstances. He did not offer any
specific explanation or alternative version of the occurrence,
nor did he lead any substantive evidence in defence beyond
the formal evidence of DW-1 regarding the antecedents of the
deceased.
(ii) It is well settled that the statement of an accused
recorded under Section 313 Cr.P.C. is not substantive
evidence. It can be taken into consideration only to the limited
extent of explaining the circumstances appearing against him
or for the purpose of appreciating the truth or otherwise of the
prosecution version. The burden of proving the guilt of the
accused never shifts to the accused and remains always on the
prosecution.
(iii) In Reena Hazarika v. State of Assam, reported in (2019) 13 SCC 289, the Supreme Court emphasised that the object of Section 313 is to afford the accused an opportunity to explain the circumstances appearing against him, and that a false explanation or a false plea may, in appropriate cases, be
considered as an additional link in the chain of circumstances. However, the Court cautioned that the absence of a satisfactory explanation cannot by itself fill up the gaps in the prosecution evidence or relieve the prosecution of its primary burden.  

Alleged Oral Dying Declarations

(i) The prosecution relies upon oral statements
attributed to the deceased and made to PW-2, PW-3, PW-4
and PW-6, naming the appellant as the person who shot him.
There is no dying declaration recorded by a Magistrate. The
evidentiary value of these oral statements depends on whether
they are found to be voluntary, consistent, and made while the
deceased was in a fit condition.
(ii) It must also be kept in mind that PW-3, PW-4
and PW-6 (and to some extent PW-2) are recounting what
they claim the deceased told them. Their evidence on the point
of identity derives from the same source. While consistent oral
dying declarations can lend assurance, they cannot be treated
as multiple independent eye-witness accounts.
 

Date and Time Discrepancies
The documentary record and the majority of the
evidence place the occurrence on 25.08.2017. The reference to
25.10.2017 by the informant (and at places by PW-4 and the
IO) has been treated by the trial court as an error of
recollection. There is also a minor variation in the exact time
(approximately 7:30 p.m. to 8:00 p.m.). These discrepancies
have to be evaluated in the light of the overall consistency of
the prosecution case rather than in isolation.
Synthesis
(i) The medical evidence establishes that the
deceased died as a result of a firearm injury sustained on the
back. The occurrence of a fatal shooting is therefore not in
doubt.
(ii) The prosecution seeks to connect the appellant
with the act of firing primarily through:
(a) the direct account of PW-2;
(b) the immediate post-occurrence evidence of PW-
3 and PW-5 (including the circumstance of the appellant being
seen fleeing);
(c) the oral dying declarations alleged to have been
made to PW-2, PW-3, PW-4 and PW-6; and
(d) the surrounding circumstances, including
motive.
(iii) The principal aspects that require careful
judicial scrutiny are: the reliability and naturalness of PW-2’s
presence and version; the weight to be attached to the oral
dying declarations made to interested witnesses; the
corroborative value of PW-5’s evidence of fleeing; the effect
of non-recovery of the weapon and projectile; the
investigative omissions; and the cumulative impact of the
discrepancies regarding date and time.
(iv) The trial court accepted the prosecution
evidence, treated the date discrepancy as immaterial, relied
upon the ocular account, the oral dying declarations and the
medical evidence, and held that the charges stood proved
beyond reasonable doubt. Whether that conclusion is
sustainable on a proper appraisal of the evidence is the
question that now falls for determination by this Court.

8. Legal Principles to be Applied

Before proceeding to the final evaluation of the evidence, it is necessary to recapitulate the settled legal
principles that govern the determination of the present appeal. 

Appreciation of evidence of related and interested witnesses

(i) It is well settled that the evidence of a related or
interested witness is not to be discarded merely on the ground
of relationship or interest. In State of Rajasthan v. Kalki,
reported in (1981) 2 SCC 752, the Hon’ble Supreme Court
held that a related witness is not necessarily an interested
witness and that the evidence of such a witness cannot be
rejected on the mere ground of relationship. The real test is
whether the evidence is credible and trustworthy. The relevant
paragraph of the said judgment is reproduced below:
“7. As mentioned above the
High Court has declined to rely on the
evidence of PW 1 on two grounds: (1) she
was a “highly interested” witness
because she “is the wife of the deceased”,
and (2) there were discrepancies in her
evidence. With respect, in our opinion,
both the grounds are invalid. For, in the
circumstances of the case, she was the
only and most natural witness; she was
the only person present in the hut with the
deceased at the time of the occurrence,
and the only person who saw the
occurrence. True, it is, she is the wife of
the deceased; but she cannot be called an
“interested” witness. She is related to the
deceased. “Related” is not equivalent to
“interested”. A witness may be called
“interested” only when he or she derives
some benefit from the result of a
litigation; in the decree in a civil case, or
in seeing an accused person punished. A
witness who is a natural one and is the
only possible eyewitness in the
circumstances of a case cannot be said to
be “interested”. In the instant case PW 1
had no interest in protecting the real
culprit, and falsely implicating the
respondents.”
(ii) The evidence of a related witness should be
scrutinised with care, but if it is found reliable after such
scrutiny, it can form the basis of conviction. The same
principle has been consistently followed in later decisions,
including Raju v. State of T.N., (2012) 12 SCC 701.
 

Oral dying declarations
(i) A statement made by a person as to the cause of
his death or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction
which resulted in his death is relevant under Section 32(1) of
the Evidence Act.
(ii) In the classic decision of Khushal Rao v. State
of Bombay, reported in AIR 1958 SC 22, the Hon’ble
Supreme Court held that a dying declaration can form the sole
basis of conviction if it is found to be voluntary and reliable.
No particular form is prescribed, and an oral dying declaration
is admissible.
(iii) The guiding principles were further elaborated
in Paniben v. State of Gujarat, reported in (1992) 2 SCC 474.
The Court must be satisfied that:
(a) the declarant was in a fit state of mind;
(b) the statement was voluntary and not the result of
tutoring or prompting;
(c) it is consistent in material particulars; and
(d) it inspires confidence.
(iv) For the sake of elaboration, the relevant
paragraph of the said judgment is reproduced below:
“18. Though a dying
declaration is entitled to great weight, it is
worthwhile to note that the accused has
no power of cross-examination. Such a
power is essential for eliciting the truth as
an obligation of oath could be. This is the
reason the Court also insists that the
dying declaration should be of such a
nature as to inspire full confidence of the
Court in its correctness. The Court has to
be on guard that the statement of deceased
was not as a result of either tutoring,
prompting or a product of imagination.
The Court must be further satisfied that
the deceased was in a fit state of mind
after a clear opportunity to observe and
identify the assailants. Once the Court is
satisfied that the declaration was true and
voluntary, undoubtedly, it can base its
conviction without any further
corroboration. It cannot be laid down as
an absolute rule of law that the dying
declaration cannot form the sole basis of
conviction unless it is corroborated. The
rule requiring corroboration is merely a
rule of prudence. This Court has laid
down in several judgments the principles
governing dying declaration, which could
be summed up as under:
(i) There is neither rule of law
nor of prudence that dying declaration
cannot be acted upon without
corroboration. (Munnu Raja v. State of M.P. [(1976) 3 SCC 104 : 1976 SCC (Cri) 376 : (1976) 2 SCR 764] )
(ii) If the Court is satisfied that
the dying declaration is true and
voluntary it can base conviction on it,
without corroboration. (State of U.P. v.Ram Sagar Yadav [(1985) 1 SCC 552 :1985 SCC (Cri) 127 : AIR 1985 SC 416] ;Ramawati Devi v. State of Bihar [(1983) 1 SCC 211 : 1983 SCC (Cri) 169 : AIR 1983
SC 164] ).
(iii) This Court has to scrutinise the dying declaration carefully and must
ensure that the declaration is not the 
result of tutoring, prompting or
imagination. The deceased had
opportunity to observe and identify the
assailants and was in a fit state to make
the declaration. (K. Ramachandra Reddy v. Public Prosecutor [(1976) 3 SCC 618 : 1976 SCC (Cri) 473 : AIR 1976 SC 1994] ).
(iv) Where dying declaration is suspicious it should not be acted upon
without corroborative evidence. (Rasheed Beg v. State of M.P. [(1974) 4 SCC 264 :1974 SCC (Cri) 426] )
(v) Where the deceased was
unconscious and could never make any
dying declaration the evidence with regard to it is to be rejected. (Kake Singh v. State of M.P. [1981 Supp SCC 25 : 1981 SCC (Cri) 645 : AIR 1982 SC 1021] )
(vi) A dying declaration which suffers from infirmity cannot form the
basis of conviction. (Ram Manorath v. State of U.P. [(1981) 2 SCC 654 : 1981SCC (Cri) 581] )
(vii) Merely because a dying
declaration does not contain the details as
to the occurrence, it is not to be rejected.
(State of Maharashtra v. Krishnamurti Laxmipati Naidu [1980 Supp SCC 455 :1981 SCC (Cri) 364 : AIR 1981 SC 617])
(viii) Equally, merely because it
is a brief statement, it is not to be
discarded. On the contrary, the shortness
of the statement itself guarantees truth.
(Surajdeo Oza v. State of Bihar [1980 Supp SCC 769 : 1979 SCC (Cri) 519 : AIR 1979 SC 1505] )
(ix) Normally the court in order
to satisfy itself whether the deceased was
in a fit mental condition to make the dying
declaration look up to the medical
opinion. But where the eyewitness has
said that the deceased was in a fit and
conscious state to make this dying
declaration, the medical opinion cannot
prevail. (Nanhau Ram v. State of M.P. [1988 Supp SCC 152 : 1988 SCC (Cri) 342 : AIR 1988 SC 912] )
(x) Where the prosecution
version differs from the version as given in
the dying declaration, the said declaration
cannot be acted upon. (State of U.P. v. Madan Mohan [(1989) 3 SCC 390 : 1989SCC (Cri) 585 : AIR 1989 SC 1519] )”
(v) In cases of oral dying declarations, greater caution is required. In State of M.P. v. Ramjan Khan, 2024
SCC OnLine SC 3070, the Hon’ble Supreme Court flagging
case-specific infirmities, such as uncorroborated, omitted
from FIR/Section 161 CrPC statement, interested witness etc.
emphasised that when an oral dying declaration is made
before close relatives or interested persons and is not recorded
contemporaneously, the Court must examine it with closer
scrutiny. The relevant paragraph of the sid judgment is
reproduced below:
17. Through the evidence of
PW8, the mother of the deceased, who is
also the informant, the prosecution has
attempted to establish the existence of an
oral dying declaration. It is to be noted
that dying declaration itself is not a
strong piece of evidence and therefore,
when it is verbal and that too, allegedly
made to a close relative (in this case
allegedly to the mother), evidence of
mother about the oral dying declaration
was to be treated with care and caution.
To show that the trial Court dealt with the
same without due care and caution self-
evident from paragraph 32 of the
judgment of the Trial Court, which reads
thus:-
“32. During the arguments, ld.
Counsel for the accused argued that
complainant Sitara Bi has stated in her
court statement that when she reached at
well, at that time, her son Naseem Khan
told her that all the three accused Ramjan
Khan, Musab Khan and Habib Khan have
caused his murder after beating him with
sickle, axe and lathi. Though, this fact is
not written in the police statement Exh.
D-3 of Sitara Bi that when he reached, at
that time, accused Naseem had told her to
be beaten by accused persons, even
thereafter, I don't find it proper to give it's
benefit to the accused persons because I
don't find any reason to disbelieve the
statement, which has been given by her
before the court.”
(vi) Consistency among multiple witnesses
recounting the same oral declaration may lend assurance, but
such consistency cannot be treated as independent
corroboration of the same quality as that of an unrelated eye-
witness.

Non-recovery of the weapon of offence and the projectile

(i) It is equally well settled that non-recovery of the weapon of offence or the bullet is not necessarily fatal to the prosecution case if the ocular evidence or the dying declaration is found to be reliable and receives corroboration from medical evidence. In Rakesh v. State of U.P., (2021) 7 SCC 188, the Hon’ble Supreme Court observed that the absence of the weapon does not ipso facto demolish the prosecution version when the other evidence is trustworthy. The relevant paragraph of the said judgment is reproduced below:
“12. Now so far as the submission on behalf of the accused that
as per the ballistic report the bullet found
does not match with the firearm/gun
recovered and therefore the use of gun as
alleged is doubtful and therefore benefit
of doubt must be given to the accused is
concerned, the aforesaid cannot be
accepted. At the most, it can be said that
the gun recovered by the police from the
accused may not have been used for
killing and therefore the recovery of the
actual weapon used for killing can be
ignored and it is to be treated as if there
is no recovery at all. For convicting an
accused recovery of the weapon used in
commission of offence is not a sine qua
non. PW 1 and PW 2, as observed
hereinabove, are reliable and trustworthy
eyewitnesses to the incident and they have
specifically stated that A-1 Rakesh fired
from the gun and the deceased sustained
injury. The injury by the gun has been
established and proved from the medical
evidence and the deposition of Dr
Santosh Kumar, PW 5. Injury 1 is by
gunshot. Therefore, it is not possible to
reject the credible ocular evidence of PW
1 and PW 2 — eyewitnesses who
witnessed the shooting. It has no bearing
on credibility of deposition of PW 1 and
PW 2 that A-1 shot deceased with a gun,
particularly as it is corroborated by
bullet in the body and also stands
corroborated by the testimony of PW 2
and PW 5. Therefore, merely because the
ballistic report shows that the bullet
recovered does not match with the gun
recovered, it is not possible to reject the
credible and reliable deposition of PW 1
and PW 2.”
(ii) At the same time, the non-recovery remains a relevant circumstance, particularly when the identity of the assailant is seriously disputed and scientific evidence could have provided objective support.

Scope of interference in an appeal against conviction 

In an appeal against conviction, the appellate court exercises the same power as the trial court to review the evidence, subject to the well-known limitations attending the appreciation of oral evidence. It is under a duty to re-appreciate and re-examine the entire evidence on record, and is not confined to interfering only where the trial court's findings are perverse. Its jurisdiction to reverse a finding of conviction is co-extensive with the trial court’s original jurisdiction to render it. This principle has been reiterated in several decisions, including State of Gujarat v. Bhalchandra Laxmishankar Dave, (2021) 2 SCC 735, the relevant paragraph of which is reproduced below: 

“5.2. The High Court ought to have appreciated that it was dealing with the first appeal against the order of conviction passed by the learned trial court. Being the first appellate court, the High Court was required to reappreciate the entire evidence on record and also the reasoning given by the learned trial court while convicting the accused. Non-reappreciation of the evidence on record may affect the case of either the prosecution or even the accused. Being the first appellate court, the High Court ought to have re-appreciated the entire evidence on record without any limitation, which might be there while dealing with an appeal against the order of acquittal passed by the learned trial court.”

Supreme Court sets aside Patna High Court's regular bail order in a corruption case from Muzaffarpur because chargesheet filed, no custodial interrogation warrarted, old age of accused, absence of flight risk

In Sudhir Kumar vs. The State of Bihar through Special Vigilance Unit, Patna (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices Aravind Kumar and Vipul M. Pancholi passed a 4-page long order dated September 21, 2026, wherein, it granted leave. It set aside the order by Justice Sandeep Kumar of Patna High Court. It concluded: "Investigation having been concluded, chargesheet has been filed. 5. Having heard the learned counsels appearing for the parties and after noticing that it is a case of trap and appellant was caught red-handed, at this stage, we do not propose to enter into the merits. Suffice it to state that the appellant has been in judicial custody from 03.01.2026 and chargesheet has been filed, the custodial interrogation, even if any, would not be warranted. The appellant is said to be aged about 62 years and is said to be suffering from age related diseases and there being no other allegation, we are of the considered view that there is no flight risk. Hence appellant is entitled for relief of bail. 6. Hence, the appeal is allowed. Impugned order is set aside. Appellant is ordered to be released on bail by the jurisdictional court on such terms and conditions as it may deem fit."

Earlier, in Sudhir Kumar vs. The State of Bihar through Special Vigilance Unit, Patna (2026), Justice Kumar of the High Court had passed a 13-page long order dated July 9, 2026, wherein, he concluded:"25. It is well settled that the filing of the charge-sheet, on its own, does not, ipso facto, entitle an accused to bail and the discretion remains to be exercised on the complete and composite assessment of the facts of the case. 26. Therefore, in the facts of the present case, as noted herein above, the offence being one of corruption by a senior public servant and corruption being an offence where the community as a whole is the victim, the balance, on the material as it presently stands, does not tilt in favour of enlargement of the petitioner on bail. 27. The medical conditions pleaded by the petitioner, that is, diabetes, hypertension, piles and kidney stone are chronic ailments for which treatment is suitably and sufficiently available within the jail establishment and it is not the case of the petitioner that any advised medical intervention has been denied to him. 28. On a conspectus of the aforesaid, in a case of alleged corruption by a senior government servant caught red-handed and a prima facie case fortified by a pre-F.I.R. recording, a serial-number match of the treated currency notes recovered from the petitioner and positive forensic findings, together with the fact that during investigation, there was a huge recovery of cash and gold from the petitioner, this Court is not inclined to exercise its discretion in favour of the petitioner. 29. Accordingly, this application for regular bail stands dismissed. The Special Judge is directed to conclude the trial at the earliest. Needless to state that, if the trial is delayed by the prosecution or if there is any material and substantial change in circumstance, the petitioner may renew his prayer for bail. 30. It is made clear that any observation made herein is prima facie in nature and limited solely for the purpose of adjudication of the present bail application. Such observations shall not be construed as an expression on the merits of the case and shall not influence the trial or any otherproceedings in any manner." 

The petitioner had approached the High Court seeking regular bail in connection with Vigilance P.S. Case No. 03 of 2026 registered for the offence under Section 7(b) of the Prevention of Corruption Act. 

The prosecution's case is that the petitioner, while functioning as District Agriculture Officer-cum-Project Director, Muzaffarpur, allegedly demanded a sum of Rs. 2,00,000/- as illegal gratification from the informant Santosh Kumar, Block Technical Manager, Sahebganj, for facilitating his formal re-joining on the said post pursuant to office order dated December 5, 2025. It is alleged that, under pressure and compulsion, the informant is said to have paid Rs. 1,81,000/- to the petitioner in two installments of Rs. 1,50,000/-and Rs. 31,000/-, whereafter the petitioner allegedly issued the necessary orders formalizing his re-joining, but continued to exert repeated pressure for payment of the balance amount of Rs. 19,000/-. It is further the case that being unable and unwilling to satisfy the further demand, the informant submitted a written complaint dated 11.12.2025 before the Vigilance Investigation Bureau, Patna. The allegation of demand was verified on 31.12.2025 and the conversation of the petitioner is said to have been secretly audio-recorded, wherein the petitioner allegedly acknowledged the outstanding balance and had further flatly refused to reduce the amount by Rs. 5,000/. 

The verification report having confirmed the demand, Vigilance P.S. Case No. 03 of 2026 was registered on January 2, 2026 under Section 7(b) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 and a trap team was constituted. Thereafter, in the pre-trap proceedings, the G.C. notes totalling Rs. 19,000/- produced by the informant were treated with phenolphthalein and their serial numbers were recorded in the pre-trap memorandum. On January 3, 2026, the informant and the verifier were sent to the residence of the accused, where, according to the prosecution, the accused once again demanded and voluntarily accepted the tainted money. Thereafter, it is alleged that the trap team apprehended the petitioner red-handed in the presence of independent witnesses and the tainted notes were recovered from the left pocket of his trousers. The serial numbers were tallied with the pre-trap memorandum and the washes of both his hands and of the said pocket, on being dipped in sodium carbonate solution, turned pink. Furthermore, as per FSL Examination Report No. 39627 dated January 17, 2026, the presence of phenolphthalein and sodium carbonate was confirmed in the sealed exhibits.

Upon completion of investigation, Charge-sheet No. 23 of 2026 dated February 28, 2026 was submitted. 

Nivedita Nirvikar, the senior counsel of the petitioner had submitted that the petitioner is quite innocent and has been falsely implicated at the instance of an informant driven by deep-rooted animus against the
petitioner. The petitioner had already approved the re-joining of the informant vide order dated December 5, 2025 and no work of the informant remained pending before him. She also submitted that no public servant would grant the relief first and demand the bribe thereafter and therefore, the entire story is concocted and false. The alleged prior payments of Rs. 1,50,000/- and Rs. 31,000/- rest solely on the ipse dixit of the informant. apart from Rs. 19,000/ recovered from the petitioner during the trap, the other recoveries of gold, etc., have been explained by the petitioner in the statement filed by the petitioner before the Income Tax Department for the year 2021-22. She also submitted that if there are some differences in the same, the reason is the marriage of the son of the petitioner. It was submitted that the house and locker seizures are wholly extraneous to the case. The jewellery is the stridhan of three adult female members of the family accumulated over three decades and reflected in income tax disclosures, valued at the peak market rates of January 2026 rather than acquisition cost and in any event forms the subject-matter of the separate and subsequent Vigilance P.S. Case No. 32 of 2026 which is still under investigation. Nirvikar had submitted that once the charge-sheet is filed and custodial interrogation is over, continued incarceration is punitive and therefore the present petitioner deserved to be enlarged on bail. 

Justice Kumar observed: "16. The undisputed facts of the case are that the petitioner was trapped and caught red-handed with the phenolphthalein treated currency notes which were tallied and found to have matched with their serial numbers as recorded in the pre-trap memorandum. The treated currency notes were recovered from the left pocket of the trousers worn by the petitioner and were recovered in the presence of independent witnesses. The washes of both hands of the petitioner as also of the pocket of his trousers had turned pink, which stands scientifically confirmed by F.S.L. Examination Report No. 39627 dated 17.01.2026. From the perusal of the records, it also appears that the alleged demand of illegal gratification by the petitioner was duly subjected to verification before the registration of the present F.I.R. and the conversation was audio-recorded 17. The informant who is a material witness is a contractual Block Technical Manager of the very establishment of which the petitioner was his superior. 18. The transcript, prima facie, records the petitioner inquiring about the balance that remained unpaid, directing the complainant to bring the balance amount, declining the reduction of Rs. 5,000/- and also appears to have asked by when the informant would pay the balance amount." 

The order reads: "At this stage, this Court cannot enter into the merits of the case to weigh the inter-se evidentiary value of the materials collected during investigation, however, prima facie, it appears that the
petitioner had engaged with the informant on the demand of illegal gratification. Demand for illegal gratification is a sine qua non of the offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act and must at trial be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Since this Court cannot enter into a meticulous thread-bare analysis of the materials collected and weight its evidentiary value, therefore at this threshold, this Court finds it difficult to accept the submissions of the learned Senior Counsel for the petitioner regarding the contemporaneous electronic record of the conversation as being no evidence of demand. Whether the recorded voice is that of the petitioner and whether the recording satisfies the requirements of admissibility, including matters related to the content thereto and the alleged utterances of the petitioner are all quintessentially matters of trial. 19. What remains significant is that the alleged demand for illegal gratification is not to be prima facie inferred solely from the recovery of the treated-currency notes, but the prosecution also points towards the voice recording which predates and is from a date prior to the registration of the present F.I.R. itself. 20. There is also a recovery of gold, as mentioned above, from the house and bank locker, which as per the petitioner, has been explained in the statement filed before the
Income Tax Department."

Justice Kumar observed: "Upon perusal, this Court does not find the same to have been filed before the Income Tax Department rather it appears to be a statement forwarded to the State Government and not to the Income Tax Department. There is no acknowledgement/receipt from the Income Tax Department with regard to the Income Tax Return....So far as the recovery of a huge quantity of gold is concerned, the petitioner has not been able to explain such recovery and the mere statement that the recovered gold, etc., has been explained by the petitioner does not inspire confidence. 23. The amount recovered from the person of the petitioner being Rs. 19,000/-, it is required to be emphasized, particularly in the context of a trap case, that the gravity of an offence of corruption is not to be measured by the rupee value of the bribe. What renders the offence grave is the abuse of public office and the breach of the trust reposed by the public in the holder of such office and not the quantum of the illegal gratification demanded or accepted."

Justice Kumar relied on the decision of the Supreme Court in State of M.P. & Ors. vs. Ram Singh, reported as (2000) 5 SCC 88, wherein, it described corruption as a cancer and a plague, which is not only contagious but which, if not nipped in the bud at the earliest, spreads like fire in a jungle and corrodes the polity of the country. The gravity of the offence of corruption is, therefore, tied to the nature of the wrong itself and not to its quantum. 

Justice Kumar also observed: "24. Viewed thus, in a case such as the present one, where a public servant has been caught red-handed in a trap, the tainted money has been recovered from his person in the presence of independent witnesses and the washes of his hands and clothes have returned a positive phenolphthalein test, the gravity of the offence flows from the act of illegal gratification and it does not matter whether the amount was small or large." Supreme Court has set aside the order by the High Court.  



Supreme Court sets aside regular bail denial order of Patna High Court in a cyber crime case of fake document based 231 mobile numbers from Rampur Chandraman, Mahuwa, Vaishali

In Anwarul Haque vs. The State of Bihar (2026), Justices Ujjal Bhuyan and Atul S. Chandurkar passed a 5-page long order dated September 22, 2026, wherein, it granted leave and allowed the appeal. It concluded:"10. We have gone through the same as well as the counter affidavit filed on behalf of the CBI. We find that case of the appellant is almost identical to that of the co-accused Mukesh Mahto who has been granted bail by the High Court. That being the position and considering the fact that appellant is in custody for almost 14 months now, we are inclined to grant bail to the appellant. 11. Consequently, we set aside the impugned order of the High Court dated 25.03.2026 and direct that the appellant shall be produced before the Trial Court  within a maximum period of 7 days from today whereafter he shall be enlarged on bail on such terms and conditions as may be deemed appropriate."

The appellant was aggrieved by the order dated March 25, 2026, passed by Justice Sandeep Kumar of Patna High Court wherein, the regular bail application of the appellant was rejected. The appellant is an accused in Economic offences P.S. Case No.16 of 2025, registered before the Economic Offences Unit Police Station, Patna, under Sections 318(4), 319(2), 336(2), 336(3), 338, 340(2), 111, 61(2), 3(5), 42(1), 42(2), 43(3) and 42(6) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and Sections 66, 66(c), 66(d) and 72 of the IT Act. (now registered with the Central Bureau of Investigation, (CBI). The appellant was arrested on July 21, 2025 and since then he has been in custody. The allegation against the appellant is that he is involved in a large scale cyber fraud in connection with which a large number of fake sim cards have been recovered. The Court had issued notice on May 13, 2026. In the proceedings held on August 18, 2026, the Supreme Court had called upon the CBI to file an updated status report regarding the present status of the investigation. 9. Pursuant thereto, CBI has filed updated status report. It was in  this backdrop that the High Court's order was set aside. 

Earlier, in Anwarul Haque vs. The State of Bihar (2026), Justice Kumar of the High Court had passed a 2-page long order dated March 25, 2026, wherein, he concluded:"6. Considering the fact that the allegation levelled against the petitioner is of large scale cyber fraud and the fact that large number of fake sim cards have been recovered, I am not inclined to grant bail to the petitioner. 7. Accordingly, the application stands dismissed. 8. The Court below is directed to expedite the trial." The petitioner had approached the High Court seeking bail in connection with Economic Offences P.S. Case No. 16 of 2025 registered for the offence punishable under Sections 318(4), 319(2), 336(2), 336(3), 338, 340(2), 111, 61(2), 3(5), 42(1), 42(2), 43(3), 42(6) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita and Sections 66, 66(c), 66(d) and 72 of the I.T. Act. 

As per the prosecution case, a large scale sim box found was recovered in Vaishali Dstrict, Bihar in which several POS (Point of Sale) were activated and around 231 mobile numbers using fake documents were found. These sim cards were supplied to a sim box setup operating in Gopalganj and Siwan District. Between June 2025 and July 2025 these sim cards were used to generate more than 51,000 calls and international, VOIP calls were converted into local calls. The fraud enabled cyber crime such as phishing calls, fake refund, scams, credit card fraud and customers care scams targeting victims across Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand and other states. The High Court's order recorded that the petitioner is in custody since July 21, 2025.


Wednesday, September 23, 2026

Supreme Court issues notice to Registrar General, Patna High Court for contempt of court, impleads High Court through him as a Party-Respondent in a case related to a "strange" order by A.C.J.M.-8, Motihari

In Manju Devi & Anr. vs. The State of Bihar & Anr. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices Prashant Kumar Mishra and Augustine George Masih passed a 2-page long order dated September  22, 2026, which reads:"1. The report sought for by this Court vide order dated 15.05.2026 has not been sent by the Registrar General, High Court of Patna. 2. Let the High Court of Patna be joined as a party-respondent through its Registrar General. Memo of parties be amended accordingly. 3. A Show Cause Notice be issued to the Registrar General, High Court of Patna, as to why the order passed by this Court has not been complied with. 4. The reply to the Show Cause Notice shall be filed on an affidavit by the Registrar General himself. 5. It is made clear that if the Registrar General fails to file a reply to the Show Cause Notice, proceedings for committing contempt of court shall be initiated against the Registrar General, Patna High Court. 6. List the matter on 26.10.2026." 

Supreme Court's order dated May 15, 2026 reads:"The order dated 31.01.2026 recorded in the Court of A.C.J.M.-8, Motihari District, Bihar records the following: 'As per the direction of the learned Principal District and Sessions Judge, East Champaran, Motihari, Physical verification has been conducted. Upon Physical verification, the present record could not be found despite due and diligent search. Accordingly, the same is disposed of as untraced. However, if the said record is traced in future, the proceeding shall commence immediately in accordance with law. Let necessary entries be made in the relevant register.' 2. It is strange that a Judicial Officer has very conveniently recorded in the order that the record could not be found, therefore, the case is disposed of as untraced. 3. Let the Registrar, High Court of Patna, initiate enquiry as to how the court record is misplaced or untraced. 4. The responsibility be fixed, action taken and information be sent to this court before the next date of hearing. 5. List the matter on 22.09.2026." 

The order of the Supreme Court pertains to the order dated January 31, 2026 by ACJM, Motihari, which was required to be inquired into by the Registrar of Patna High Court.  The million dollar question is: If the judicial officer of any court in the country is informed that a record of court is "untraced", what does judicial discipline obligate him to do. Is any judge in any case permitted to pass an order saying "disposed of as untraced"?   

In its 2-page long order dated December 1, 2025, the Supreme Court had directed that "the petitioners shall not be arrested in connection with the FIR No. 306/2024, registered with Police Station-Pakridayal...." By subsequent orders of the Court the interim order was extended. 

The order dated September 22, 2026 added:"7. The Registrar (Judicial) of the Supreme Court shall inform the Registrar General, Patna High Court, about this order and copy of entire record of proceedings be served to the Registrar General, Patna High Court. 8. The interim order granted earlier on 01.12.2025 shall continue till the next date of hearing and the petitioner(s) shall join the investigation by appearing before the concerned SHO between 11:00 AM to 1:00 PM on 05.10.2026. 9. The respondent-State of Bihar shall file a supplementary counter-affidavit before the next date of hearing."   

The petitioner no. 2 is Baiju Sahani, the husband of Manju Devi and the respondent no. 2 is Registrar General, Patna High Court. 

Notably, Rupesh Deo, the current Registrar General, Patna High Court is on the post since August 3, 2026. The current Chairman, Commercial Taxes Tribunal, Patna, P. K. Malik was the Registrar General from February 5, 2024 till April 2026. The current Secretary, Bihar Legislative Assembly, S.G. Mishra served as the Registrar General of the from April 20, 2026 till July 2026. 

Earlier, in Manju Devi & Anr. vs. The State of Bihar (2025), Justice Rajiv Roy of Patna High Court had passed a 2-page long order dated October 16, 2025, wherein, he had concluded:"5. Learned APP, Mr. Bharat Bhushan and learned counsel for the informant have jointly taken this Court to the injury report which are the part of the case diary to show that the injuries on the injured persons namely Akhilesh Sahni and Naresh Sahni have been found to be grievous in nature. 6. Taking into account the aforesaid facts as also that the injuries have been found to be grievous in nature, in that background, no relief can be extended. 7. The anticipatory bail application stands rejected." The petitioner no. 2 is Baiju Sahani, the husband of Manju Devi. The petitioners had approached the High Court apprehending arrest in connection with Pakarideyal P.S. Case No. 306 of 2024 instituted under Sections 190, 191(2), 191(3), 115(2), 117(2), 118(2), 76, 303(2) of B.N.S., 2023 lodged on December 3, 2024 by the informant, Rekha Devi.  As per the prosecution story, the informant’s cousin father-in-law was assaulted by Baiju Sahani and Arvind Kumar with iron rod beside Manju Devi assaulted with ‘Kudal’. As he fell down, the husband came to rescue, the allegation is that Baiju Sahani and Babita Devi gave iron rod blow causing fracture on the hand. Further allegation is of snatching of gold chain. They were referred to Muzaffarpur for better treatment. The counsel for the petitioner had submitted that there is a case and counter case, land dispute has led to the filing of the FIR No. 306/24 dated December 3, 2024, the petitioners did not have any criminal antecedent. Unlike the High Court, the Supreme Court granted protection to the petitioners.  




 

Six judicial officers whose candidature was rejected by notice dated June 21, 2019 have now been selected for interview under District Judge (Entry Level), Direct from Bar Exam-2019 in compliance with Supreme Court's order dated May 22, 2026

A notice dated June 21, 2026 has issued by the Registrar General of the Patna High Court by order of the Court, stating that the judicial officers whose candidature along with other judicial officers was rejected vide notice dated June 21, 2019 taking notice of the order dated May 10, 2019 of the Supreme Court in Dheeraj Mor vs. Hon'ble High Court of Delhi, Special Leave to Appeal (C) No. 14156/2015 with W.P. (C) No. 414/2016 (X)] are selected for interview under the District Judge (Entry Level), Direct from Bar Exam-2019 in terms of the 23-page long order dated March 11, 2026 passed by 3-Judge Bench of Chief Justice Surya Kant, Justice Joymalya Bagchi and Justice Vipul M. Pancholi of the Supreme Court of India in Civil Appeal No. 3947 of 2020 (Rejanish K.V. vs. K. Deepa & Ors.) and other connected cases and 6-page long order dated May 22, 2026 passed by the same 3-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court in Dheeraj Mor vs. Hon’Ble High Court of Delhi &Ors. Miscellaneous Application No. 1249 of 2026 in Review Petition (Civil) No. 621 of 2021 in Civil Appeal No. 1698 of 2020 as well as upon consideration of their respective representations. The March 11, 2026 order was passed in terms of the 139-page long judgement dated October 9, 2025 in 2025 SCC OnLine SC 2196 by the Supreme Court's 5-Judge Constitution Bench of Justice B.R. Gavai, Chief Justice of India and Justices Aravind Kumar, Satish Chandra Sharma, K. Vinod Chandran, and M.M. Sundresh.

In its order dated May 22, 2026, the 3-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court observed: "3. On a bare reading of paragraph 170, there is no doubt that the judgment has to be effected prospectively, w.e.f. 09.10.2025. The Bench, however, carved out an exception in favour of those where “any selection process [was] completed, or any appointment [was] made prior to this judgment...”. In other words, if a direct recruit or even a serving judicial officer, who had been permitted to participate in the selection process, and had been selected or appointed, all such selections and appointments have been protected. Such selected officers are entitled to appointment and if such appointed officers were relieved on the ground of eligibility, they are also entitled to seek reinstatement. However, in terms of paragraph 170, reproduced above, it is clear that on the basis of selection which would be contingent on the outcome of an incomplete selection process and a anticipated consequential appointment, no relief of deemed seniority can be granted. This principle has also been given shape to in our order dated 11.03.2026." It concluded: "4. All the High Courts are, accordingly, directed to review the individual cases of the judicial officers and take an appropriate decision in terms of the law laid down by the Constitution Bench." The Court was referred to paragraph 170 of the judgement dated October 9, 2025 by the 5-Judge Constitution Bench. 

In its order dated March 11, 2026, the Supreme Court's 3-Judge Bench has concluded:"22. For the purposes of cadre management, we deem it apposite to issue a final clarification: all the judicial officers, who would benefit from deemed service from the original date of appointment or a retrospective notional date due to the judgment passed by the Constitution Bench and the instant final order, shall be taken to be District Judges appointed through direct recruitment. 23. In the interest of complete fairness, we acknowledge that, in the course of oral submissions, various other related issues have been raised by learned senior counsel/counsel for the parties. However, in the absence of specific pleadings with reference to each High Court and the factual determinations that would be required to be made for adjudication thereon, we are afraid that it would not be prudent for this Court to go into those questions at this stage. The same are, accordingly, kept open for the parties to agitate, at the first instance, before the Committee of Judges described above. The Committee shall decide the factual disputes and submit its recommendation to the Full Court of the High Court. The Full Court shall, in turn, take the final decision, within four months of the aggrieved party having submitted its representation. There shall, however, be an endeavour by each High Court to not generate new inter-se seniority disputes, especially given that members of the bar have given up their practice to join the Higher Judicial Services with a legitimate expectation of seniority based upon the date of their appointment. 24. In any case, the parties shall be at liberty to raise such contention(s), if need be, in appropriate judicial proceedings." 

This order has been passed in terms of the 139-page long judgement dated October 9, 2025. The judgement was delivered upon hearing following substantial questions of law for consideration of a Constitution Bench: (i) Whether a judicial officer who has already completed seven years in Bar being recruited for subordinate judicial services would be entitled for appointment as Additional District Judge against the Bar vacancy?  (ii) Whether the eligibility for appointment as a District Judge is to be seen only at the time of appointment or at the time of application or both?  (iii) Whether there is any eligibility prescribed for a person already in the judicial service of the Union or State under Article 233(2) of the Constitution of India for being appointed as District Judge? (iv) Whether a person who has been Civil Judge for a period of seven years or has been an Advocate and Civil Judge for a combined period of seven years or more than seven years would be eligible for appointment as District Judge under Article 233 of the Constitution of India? A 3-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court in a batch of matters, by its order dated August 12, 2025, had referred the first two questions to the Constitution Bench. The Constitution Bench added last two questions for consideration and determination.  

The Constitution Bench judgment dated October 9, 2025 conclusively answered the question of law and held that judicial officers are eligible for being appointed as District Judges through direct recruitment, and their past period of service as a judicial officer shall count towards the minimum practice requirement for such eligibility. In doing so, the Constitution Bench has overruled a previous three-judge bench decision of the Supreme Court in Dheeraj Mor vs. High Court of Delhi, (2020) 7 SCC 401. The Constitution Bench, through paragraph 175 of its judgment, directed that these cases be placed before an appropriate bench for final adjudication. Notably, paragraphs 170 to 174 of the judgment dated October 9, 2025 contains guiding directions for giving effect to the decision of the Supreme Court.  These paragraphs are as under: 

"170. In any case, we clarify that what we have held in this judgment will be applicable only from the date of this judgment and in no case, any selection process completed, or any appointment made prior to this judgment would be affected, except in cases wherein any interim order(s) were passed by the High Courts or this Court. In such cases, the issue would now be governed by the orders to be passed by the Bench hearing the matters.
F. CONCLUSION AND DIRECTIONS
171. In view of the answer which we propose to give for Question No. 4, it may not be necessary to deal with the other questions, however, since the questions are framed by this Court, we propose to answer all the questions.
172. In the result, we answer the questions as under:
(i) Judicial Officers who have already completed seven years in Bar before they were recruited in the subordinate judicial service would be entitled for being appointed as a District Judge/Additional District Judge in the selection process for the post of District Judges in the direct recruitment process;
(ii) The eligibility for appointment as a District Judge/Additional District Judge is to be seen at the time of application;
(iii) Though there is no eligibility prescribed under Article 233(2) for a person already in judicial service of the Union or of the State for being appointed as District Judge, in order to provide a level playing field, we direct that a candidate applying as an in-service candidate should have seven years’ combined experience as a Judicial Officer and an advocate;
(iv) A person who has been or who is in judicial service and has a combined experience of seven years or more as an advocate or a Judicial Officer would be eligible for being considered and appointed as a District Judge/Additional District Judge under Article 233 of the Constitution;
(v) In order to ensure level playing field, we further direct that the minimum age for being considered and appointed as a District Judge/Additional District Judge for both advocates and Judicial Officers would be 35 years of age as on the date of application.
(vi) It is held that the view taken in the judgments of this Court right from Satya Narain Singh (supra) till Dheeraj Mor (supra), which take a view contrary to what has been held hereinabove do not lay down the correct proposition of law. 
173. The reference is answered accordingly.
174. Consequently, all such rules framed by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts which are not in accordance with the aforesaid answers shall stand quashed and set aside. It is directed that all the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts shall frame/amend the rules in accordance with what has been held by us hereinabove, within a period of three months from today.
175. The Registry is directed to obtain the necessary orders from Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India, on the administrative side, to place the matters part of the present batch before an appropriate bench for deciding the same in the light of what has been held hereinabove." 

It was in this context that the 3-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court passed the order dated March 11, 2026. Subsequent to these directions of the 3-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court, the notice dated September 2, 2026 of the High Court was published on its website on September 3, 2026. 

The names of these six selected judicial officers are: Sanjay Kumar (Roll No. 10297), Ranjeeta Kumari (Roll No.12098), Upendra Sah (Roll No.12249), Priya Shekhar (Roll No.12763), Avinash Kumar (Roll No.12917) and  Mohamm ad Ruknuddin (Roll No.13222). 

The notice states that the notice dated June 21, 2019 has been modified to include the names of these judicial officers. The information regarding the date of the interview will be given soon . The candidatures of these selected candidates for interview are provisional. The High Court is free to decide about their eligibility at any stage upon proper verification. These  candidates have been advised to be ready with their original documents/testimonials as detailed in the Advertisement so that they can upload the scanned copies of the same for the first stage verification at a short notice when the website/portal of the High Court shall be opened for the purpose. The candidates have also been advised to keep visiting the website of the Court regularly for further details and updates in the matter. 

Notably, the Main (Written) Examination was held on May 12, 2019 in which 131 candidates, out of 140 candidates to whom admit cards were issued, had appeared. Its result was issued by a notice dated June 21, 2019 issued by the Registrar General by the order of the High Court which reads: "The candidature of the in-service candidates employed as Judicial officers, who appeared in the Main (written) Examination, has been rejected taking notice of the order dated 10.05.2019 of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of Dheeraj Mor Vs. Hon'ble High Court of Delhi, Special Leave to Appeal (c) No. 14156/2015 with W.P. (C) No. 414/2016 (X), whereby it has been held that no new appointments be made from now onwards of in-service candidates against quota reserved for Bar and further held that in case even if in-service candidate has been selected in the examination held earlier as against the Bar quota no further appointment to be made of such candidates." Notably, 34 candidates who were  selected for interview are:

1 Nalini Ranjan Srivastava (Roll No. 10104 )
2 Neeraj Sharma (Roll No. 10124) 
3 Madhu Agrawal (Roll No. 10304) 
4 Shailendra Kumar (Roll No. 10381) 
5 Shailendra Kumar (Roll No. 10404)
6 Amit Awasthi (Roll No. 10560) 
7 Brajesh Kumar (Roll No. 10700) 
8 Kumar Saket (Roll No. 10778) 
9 Brajesh Kumar Singh (Roll No. 10813) 
10 Nikitha R Vora (Roll No. 10830) 
11 Neelam Goswami (Roll No. 10983) 
12  Sunita Rani Tiwari (Roll No. 10986)
13  Protima Parihar (Roll No. 11401) 
14 Namrata Agrawal (Roll No. 11441) 
15 Neeraj Madhup (Roll No. 11622) 
16  Vinay Tewari (Roll No. 11649) 
17 Ravishankar Kumar (Roll No. 11758) 
18  Meetu Singh (Roll No. 11899) 
19  Lakhwinder Singh Sood (Roll No. 11996) 
20 Randhir Kumar Dhiraj (Roll No. 12254) 
21  Naween Kumar (Roll No. 12312) 
22  Manoj Kumar Tiwari (Roll No. 12691) 
23  Binod Kumar (Roll No. 12808)
24  Arvind Kumar Sudhanshu (Roll No. 12904) 
25  Mukund Kumar (Roll No. 13164) 
26 Suman Kumar Divakar (Roll No. 13202)
27 Shiv Kumar (Roll No. 13208)
28  Achyut Jee (Roll No. 13279) 
29  Rupesh Kumar (Roll No. 13359)
30  Seema Bhartiya (Roll No. 13429) 
31  Dushyant Kumar (Roll No. 13457) 
32 Anil Kumar Chandel (Roll No. 13609 ) 
33  Anil Kumar (Roll No. 13621)
34  Pushpa Kumari (Roll No. 13654) 

The notice noted that "The aforesaid result has been prepared on the basis of provisions as contained in Advertisement no. BSJS/1/2019, The Bihar Superior Judicial Service Rules, 1951, letter number 588 dated 17.01.2017 issued by the General Administration Department, Govt. of Bihar to the Patna High Court and other authorities and also communication made to the Court by the State Government vide memo no. 12033 dated 18.09.2017 regarding roster formula applicable in respect of reserved Category candidates."

It also noted that "As per clause 11 of the Appendix- `C' to The Bihar Superior Judicial Service Rules, 1951, the qualifying marks for viva-voce test is 45% in each theory paper and as per clause 8 of the Appendix- `C' to the said Rules, there is provision of relaxation of 5% in qualifying marks in each theory paper for the reserved category candidates, including women candidates. 3. Amongst 34 candidates selected for the interview, there are 24 candidates, including 9 female candidates, in UR Category against 8 vacancies; 4 candidates in EBC Category against 3 vacancies; 6 Candidates in BC Category against 2 vacancies. No candidate could qualify in SC Category against 3 vacancies. The required number of SC (male / female or both), EBC (male / female or both) candidates could not obtain the minimum qualifying marks of 40% marks in each theory paper, therefore, the number of the selected candidates is less than the
required number which is three times the number of vacancies. Further, no candidate under BC/EBC (Female) category could obtain qualifying marks
." 

By a notice dated June 26, 2019 issued by Registrar General (I/c) by the order of the High Court stated that the candidates were selected for interview under District Judge (Entry Level), Direct from Bar Exam- 2019, their interview (Viva-Voce Test) was held on July 13, 2019 and July 14, 2019 in the premises of the High Court from 8.30 AM on wards. The candidates downloaded their interview letters from the website of the Court from July 1, 2019. 

For the first stage verification, they were required to upload the scanned copies of their documents in the sequence, as indicated below:-
a) Matriculation certificate / Mark sheet showing date of birth.
b) Intermediate or equivalent Certificate
c) Graduation Certificate
d) LL.B. Certificate
e) Enrollment certificate of Bar Council
f) Certificate showing practice as an advocate / professional experience for not less than seven years as on 19.02.2019 issued by the competent authority as specified in the advertisement.
g) Declaration of net income for the last three financial years preceding the year of application i.e. 2018-19
h) Declaration regarding appearance in 24 cases per year in the last three years preceding the year of advertisement which is 2018-19. 

The website of the Court was opened during June 28, 2019-July 4, 2019 for this purpose. The candidates coming for the interview were required to bring the originals of the scanned copies of the documents which they uploaded on the website of the Court. Failure to produce the original documents would disqualify them from appearing at the interview. In terms of Clause 3 of the advertisement dated January 19, 2019, the cutoff date for calculating the age of a candidate is January 1, 2019 and in terms of Clause 4 of the said advertisement, the cut off date for the purpose of consideration of other eligibility criteria was February 19, 2019. Candidates were requested to visit the Patna High Court website for further updates.

Tuesday, September 22, 2026

Patna High Court to hear issue of maintainability of election petition against Nitish Mishra, the Bihar minister of urban development, housing, information technology on September 23

Patna High Court's election petition bench of Justice Ashok Kumar Pandey will hear the issue of maintainability of election petition against Nitish Mishra, the Bihar minister of urban development, housing, information technology on September 23 

Nitish Mishra’s election from Jhanjahrapur, Madubani is under threat because of the non-disclosure of FIR against him by Mala Jha in his election affidavit. The FIR was registered in compliance with the order of Justice Chandra Shekhar Jha of the High Court. 

In Ram Narayan Yadav vs. Nitish Mishra & Ors.(2026), Advocate Dr. Gopal Krishna is representing Ram Narayan Yadav, the candidate of the Communist Party of India (CPI) in the 2025 Bihar Assembly election. The election  result was declared on November 14, 2025. 

The High Court has accepted and admitted the election petition. 

The criminal case bearing Andhratharhi P.S. Case No. 70 of 2025 dated May 13, 2025 has not been disclosed in the election affidavit filed by Nitish Mishra. The FIR was registered on a complaint by Mala Jha for the offences punishable under Sections 189(2), 324, 329 and 351 of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023. It has not been disclosed in Clause 5(ii) of Form-26 under the Representation of People Act. 

Under Sections 80, 80A and 81 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 there is a provision to challenge the validity of any election, if there is any violation of specified rules through election petition.

Friday, September 18, 2026

All India Trinamool Congress and Mamata Banerjee, the story so far

“When the Commission is satisfied on information in its possession that there are rival sections or groups of a recognized political party each of whom claims to be that party, the Commission may , after taking into account all the available facts and circumstances of the case and hearing such representatives of the sections or groups and other persons as desire to be heard, decide that one such rival section or group or none of such rival sections or groups is that recognized political party and the decision of the Commission shall be binding on all such rival sections or groups."

-Para 15, Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) Order, 1968 

In the aftermath of the allotment of the name “Mamata All India Trinamool Congress” and the 'Football Player' symbol to the All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)'s faction led by Mamata Banerjee, a case entitled Mamata Banerjee v Election Commission of India | Diary No. 58005/2026 has been filed in the Supreme Court.  

The Press Note No. EC:1/PN/1 14/2026 dated September 7, 2026 was issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI) announcing the Schedule of Elections for 5 seats to the State Legislative Assemblies of various states 01 seat of House of People of State of Assam. The prescribed time schedule [for nomination/scrutiny / withdrawal /symbol allotment etc.] in the notification is governed by statutory timelines. The outer limit of conduct of bye-elections i.e. 6 months from the date of vacancy is governed by Section 150 & 151 A of the RP Acl 1951. This has been complied with in the Commission’s Press Note of 07.09.2026. Para 5 of the Symbols Order enables a State recognized party such as All India Trinamool Congress, to have a 'reserved symbol'. The 'reserved symbol can be utilized for bye-elections and general election to be held not only in the State of its registration, but it is also allowed to have priority of same symbol in case they choose to contest elections in other States. 34. The Returning Officer of 70-Rejinagar Assembly Constituency from West Bengal has received nominations from one Shri Safiuzzaman Saikh claiming to be candidate of All India Trinamool Congress enclosing Form-B authorized by Shri Arup Roy. The Returning Officer also received a nomination aom one Shri Rabiul Alam Chowdhury also claiming to be candidate of Page 12All India Trinamool Congress enclosing Form-B authorized by Ms. Mamata Banerjee. 35. The Returning Officer of 210-Nandigram Assembly Constituency from West Bengal has received nominations from one Shri Ehteshmul Haque claiming to be candidate of All India Trinamool Congress enclosing Form-B authorized by Shri Arup Roy. The Returning Officer also received a nomination from one Smt. Sanchita Pradhan (Dey) also claiming to be candidate of All India Trinamool Congress enclosing Form-B authorized by Ms. IVlamata Banerjee. 36. The Returning Officer of9-Nagaon Parliamentary Constituency from Assam has received nomination from one Shri Abdul Salam claiming to be candidate of All India Trinamool Congress enclosing Form-B authorized by Ms. Mamata Banerjee. 

Earlier, in a 14-page long interim order dated September 17, 2026, the Election Commission of India in Dispute Case No. 01 of 2026 In re: Dispute Case No. 01 of 2026 – Dispute in All India Trinamool Congress - dispute under Paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) Order, 1968 concluded: "37....it is evident that the time available is not adequate to complete the proceedings under Para 15 of the Symbols Order. However, the Commission takes note of the urgency involved with regard to use of party symbol and party name in the ongoing by-elections. 38. On due consideration of the totality of information available on record with the Commission (as summarized above), the Commission is of the opinion that there are two rival groups in All India Trinamool Congress, one led by Ms. Mamata Banerjee and the other led by Shri Arup Roy, and each group is now claiming to be the party and therefore the matter requires a substantive determination by the Commission under Para 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) Order 1968. 39. Accordingly, in order to place both the rival groups on even keel and to protect their rights and interests, and going by the past precedence, the Commission hereby makes the following Interim Order, to cover the purpose of the current Bye-elections and to continue till the final determination of the dispute in the matter in terms of Para 15 of the Symbols Order:- a) Neither of the two groups led by Shri Arup Roy (Petitioner) and other led by Ms. Mamata Banerjee (Respondent) shall be permitted to use the name of the party “All India Trinamool Congress” simplicitor; b) Neither of the two groups shall also be permitted to use the symbol “Flowers & Grass”, reserved for “All India Trinamool Congress”; Both the groups shall be known by such names as they may choose for their respective groups, including, if they so desire, linkage with their parent party “All India Trinamool Congress”; and Both the groups shall also be allotted such different symbols as they may choose from the list of free symbols notified by the Election Commission for the purposes of the current bye-elections.40. Accordingly, both the groups are hereby directed to furnish, latest by 11:00 AM on 18.09.2026: (i) The names of their groups by which they may be recognized by Commission and to this end, give three options in order of preference, anyone of which may be approved by the Commission and; The symbols which may be allotted to the candidates set up, if any, by the respective groups. They may indicate the names of three free symbols, in the order of their preference, anyone of which may be allotted to their candidates by the Commission."

ECI's order records that the All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) is a recognized State Party in the States of West Bengal, Meghalaya and Tripura with the symbol “Flowers & Grass” allotted as its reserved symbol in the said states under the provisions of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 ('Symbols Order’ for short). 2. On 23.06.2026, Ms. Mamata Benerjee, vide letter dated 22.06.2026, informed the Commission that at a meeting of AITC National Working Committee held on 20.06.20269 the Chairperson has declared the names of the Office Bearers and members of the National Working Committee of All India Trinamool Congress (AITC). Along with the said letter list of office bearers ofAITC and AITC National Working Committee as on 20.06.2026 was enclosed." 

It also recorded that "4. On 24.06.2026, Sh. Derek O'Brien vide his letter dated 23.06.2026 requested the Commission to upload on the Commission's website the latest copy of the party constitution submitted by the party on 07.03.2026 and the updated list of Office Bearers and members of National Working Committee of AITC submitted to the Commission on 22.06.2026. 5. On 29.06.2026, Sh. Abhinav Singh, advocate, filed a Caveat dated 25.06.2026 on behalf of the Caveator, All India Trinamool Congress through Ms. Mamata Banerjee praying therein to register the Caveat and ensure that the notice is served upon the counsel along with copy of the petition before any order is passed and also grant the Caveator an opportunity to be heard before passing any order, interim or final....10. On 06.07.2026, Ms. Mamta Banerjee vide letter dated 05.07.2026 submitted her reply to the Commission’s letter dated 02.07.2026 stating that the claim made by the complainants is fundamentally flawed, illegal and not substantiated by the Party Constitution. That the elections of all the office bearers, including Chairman, are all illegal and de hors the Party Constitution. Ms. Banerjee further requested to disregard the letter dated 22.06.2026 and not attach any credence thereto."

On July 6, 2026, Ritabrata Banerjee sought one week’s time from the ECI to file appropriate response to the Commission’s letter dated July 2, 2026. The Commission vide letter dated July 7, 2026 directed Ritabrata Banerjee to file his reply latest by July 10, 2026. On July 10, 2026, Ritabrata Banerjee vide his letter dated July 10, 2026 stated that he is diligently engaged in procurement of necessary documents for the purpose of submitting a complete and effective response and sought fifteen days additional time i.e. till July 25, 2026 to file appropriate response to the Commission’s letter dated July 2, 2026. The Commission vide letter dated July 13, 2026 directed Ritabrata Banerjee to file his reply latest by July 25, 2026. 

The order records: "12. On 12.07.20269 Ms. Mamata Banerjee vide her letter dated 12.07.2026 stated that the reply from her end had been communicated within the stipulated time, i.e. 06.07.2026, and the same was also served physically upon Shri Ritabrata Banerjee. However, the reply on the part of Shri Ritabrata Banerjee was not submitted even after the extension granted vide Commission’s letter dated 07.07.2026. She has further requested that the reply submitted from her end be considered at the earliest, without granting any further time to Shri Ritabrata Banerjee. 13. On 25.07.2026, Shri Ritabrata Banerjee vide his letter dated 25.07.2026 sought ten days additional time i.e. till 04.08.2026 to file appropriate response to the Commission’s letter dated 02.07.2026. 14. On 29.07.2026, Ms. Mamata Banerjee vide her letter dated 29.07.2026 stated that she has not been informed whether Shri Ritabrata Banerjee has submitted any reply, and if such reply has been submitted no copy thereof has been provided to her. Ms. Banerjee further pointed out that since no reply has been received despite extension of time on two occasions, it can be inferred that all her submissions and statements contained in her letter dated 06.07.2026 stand admitted, and no answer has been nrrnished thereto. Ms. Banerjee requested the Commission to conclude the investigation at the earliest, without providing any further opportunity to them to submit comments as sought vide Commission’s letter dated 02.07.2026. 15. On 31.08.2026, Ms. Mamata Banerjee vide her letter dated 30.08.2026 stated that Shri Pirzada Siddique, MLA from 102-Amdanga AC, addressed an email dated 25.08.2026 to the Commission, pointing out that no prior notice or communication was ever circulated to the members and stakeholders of the AITC in respect of the purported 'Special Session’ of the AITC, allegedly held on 22.06.2026. Ms. Banerjee stated that the said communication categorically stated that the entire exercise purportedly conducted at Novotel Kolkata on 22.06.2026, was vitiated by fundamental irregularities and, therefore ought not to be treated as valid exercise in the eyes of law. Ms. Banerjee requested that aforesaid communication dated 25.08.2026, along with the facts, documents and representations placed on record by her, be duly taken into consideration while examining the allegations raised by Shri Ritabrata Banerjee and further requested the Commission to bring the enquiry initiated pursuant to the letter dated 02.07.2026 to an expeditious conclusion."

On September 11, 2026, Ritabrata Banerjee submitted his reply to the Commission’s letter dated July 2, 2026, stating therein specific replies to letters dated 15.06.2026 and 22.06.2026 of Mamata Banerjee, and letter dated 23.06.2026 of Derek o’ Brien. In reply to the letter dated 15.06.2026, Ritabrata stated that the authorization of Abhishek Banerjee and Derek O’ Brien to communicate with the Commission is illegal and non est in law as the mandate of NWC has expired on February 11, 2025. In reply to the letter dated 22.06.2022, Ritabrata stated that the said letter containing list of office bearers of the AITC' and the NWC of the AITC is an unauthorized and rogue attempt to take unilateral decisions on behalf of the party in addition to being a blatant violation of the party constitution. In reply to the letter dated February 11, 2025, Ritabrata stated that amendment to party’s constitution may not be taken on record and uploaded on Commission’s website as the amendment was not as per the constitutional process enumerated under Article XIX of the party’s constitution. 

AITC, the political party was founded by Mamata Banerjee in 1998. In 2011, AITMC, in alliance with Indian National Congress and SUCI, it ended the 34-year Left Front Rule in West Bengal, coming to power in the state by winning 227 seats. AITMC secured 187 seats alone, enabling it to run the state without an alliance. 

Mamata Banerjee was sworn in as the first woman Chief Minister of the State. She announced the return of 400 acres of land to Singur farmers as one of the first decisions. In 2014 Lok Sabha polls,  AITMC won 34 out of 42 seats in Bengal. In, 2016, AITMC won the West Bengal Assembly elections, securing an overwhelming majority of 211 out of 293 seats. It is recognised as a national party by the Election Commission of India. In the 2019 Lok Sabha Elections, TMC secures only 22 seats. 

In 2021, it wins the Vidhan Sabha elections for the third time, securing a landslide two-thirds majority winning 215 seats. Party leaders like Suvendu Adhikari and Mukul Roy had defected to BJP just before the assembly elections.

It becomes a key constituent of Congress-led INDIA bloc against the NDA in the run-up to the upcoming 2024 Lok Sabha polls. 

It could not gain majority in 2026 election. AITC party, the name and symbol of  is frozen by Election Commission of India (ECI) ahead of by-polls in West Bengal.