Monday, May 4, 2026

Supreme Court sets aside order by Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh in a cheque bounce case

In Dhananjay Kumar @ Dhananjay Kumar Gupta vs. The State of Bihar & Anr. (2026), Supreme Court's Justices B.V. Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan passed a 6-page long order dated May 4, 2026, wherein, it concluded:"Considering the circumstances on record, in our view, the appellant is entitled to the relief claimed under Section 482 of the BNSS. We, therefore, allow this appeal and set aside the order passed by the High Court dated 09.02.2026. We direct that in the event of arrest of the appellant, the Arresting Officer shall release the appellant on bail subject to furnishing cash security in the sum of Rs.25,000/- (Rupees Twenty-Five Thousand only) with two like sureties. It is directed that the appellant shall extend 3complete cooperation in the ensuing investigation/trial. The appellant shall not misuse his liberty and shall not in any way influence the witnesses or tamper with the material on record. With the aforesaid directions, the Criminal Appeal is allowed."

The appeal challenged rejection of anticipatory bail to the petitioner by Patna High Court's Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh's order dated February 9, 2026. The petitioner had approached the Court apprehending arrest in connection with crime registered pursuant to FIR of 2022 dated November 17, 2022 lodged with Police Station-Belsaganj, Sub-Division Sadar, District-Gaya in respect of the offences punishable under Sections 406 and 420 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 and under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the appellant preferred an application before the High Court seeking anticipatory bail in terms of Section 482 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.

By order dated April 2, 2026, the Supreme Court had passed the order saying, "Till the next date of hearing, no coercive steps shall be taken as against the petitioner...." 

The senior counsel for the appellant submitted that the dispute between the parties was with regard to the bouncing of a cheque and filing of a complaint under Section 138 of the NI Act; that the main accused was granted the anticipatory bail by the High Court by order dated August 1, 2023 however such a relief was not granted to the appellant herein. This Court, by virtue of the interim order dated April 2, 2026, was granted protection. In the circumstances, by following the principle of parity, the appellant may also be granted the relief of anticipatory bail subject to the terms and conditions that may be imposed by making the interim order absolute. 

The counsel for the respondent-State submitted that the complaint was made under Section 200 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and bearing in mind the facts of this case, the appropriate order may be made in the appeal.  

In Dhananjay Kumar @ Dhananjay Kumar Gupta vs. The State of Bihar & Anr. (2026), Patna High Court's Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh had passed a 3-page long order dated February 9, 2026. The petitioner had apprehended his arrest in a case registered for the offence. It was a case of cheque bounce. As per prosecution case, it was alleged that the petitioner, along with co-accused Ajit Kumar, took Rs. 70,00,000/ from the informant as consideration money in lieu of executing a land in his favour and later on, refused to execute the land. Thereafter, when the informant asked for his money back, the accused persons issued cheques in his favour which got bounced due to insufficiency of funds. Thus, the accused persons cheated the informant and extorted money from him. The respondent no. was Satyendra Yadav.   

Supreme Court grants pre-arrest bail, Justice Ansul of Patna High Court had rejected anticipatory bail application

In Babita Devi @ Babita Kumari vs.The State of Bihar (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices K.V. Viswanathan and S.V.N. Bhatti passed a 2-page long order dated May 4, 2026, wherein, concluded:"Till the next date of hearing, in the event of arrest, the petitioner shall be released on pre-arrest bail in connection with FIR No.58/2026 registered with Bharahi/Bharrahi Police Station, District Madhepura, Bihar, for the offences punishable under Sections 316(2), 318(4), 352 and 351(2) & (3) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, subject to the satisfaction of the concerned Investigating Officer....6. However, we also make it clear that being the dispute between the mother-in-law on the one side and son and daughter-in-law on the other side, an attempt should be made to amicably resolve the matter." The matter will be called again on May 25, 2026. 

The Court observed: "2. Considering that the dispute is within the family where the complainant is the mother-in-law and the accused persons are son and daughter-in-law, we are inclined to consider the matter."

Prior to this in Navin Kumar & Anr. vs. The State of Bihar (2026), Justice Ansul of the Patna High Court had heard the anticipatory bail application of the petitioner who had approached the High Court apprehending their arrest in Bharrahi P.S. Case. The petitioner no. 2 was Babita Devi @ Babita Kumari 2. The mother had alleged that the son had manipulated signatures of parties and had got the land registered in his wife’s name. In his order dated April 22, 2026, Justice Ansul had observed:"4. Considering such inhuman conduct of the petitioners, this Court is not inclined to grant the privilege of anticipatory bail to the petitioners. 5. Accordingly, the prayer for anticipatory bail is rejected."

Supreme Court reverses Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh's order in a POCSO case, grants protection from arrest

In Nitish Singh @ Nitish Kumar Singh vs. The State of Bihar & Anr. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices Prashant Kumar Mishra and N.V. Anjaria passed a 2-page long order dated May 4, 2026, wherein, it issued notice and directed that in the meanwhile, "petitioner shall not be arrested in connection with FIR No. 141/2025 registered with Police Station-Isuapur, District-Saran, Patna subject to petitioner diligently co-operating with the investigation/ trial." The respondent no. 2 is Pooja Devi, wife of Ajay Dubey, Nawada, Isuapur, Saran. The petitioner's counsel submitted that the petitioner’s mother had lodged a complaint against the opposite party on June 12, 2025 and thereafter, as a counter blast, the present FIR was lodged on July 23, 2025 alleging sexual assault but, there is no allegation of penetrative sexual assault.

Earlier, Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh of Patna High Court had passed an order dated February 2, 2026, wherein, he concluded:"5 . Considering the nature of accusation , statement of the victim recorded under section 183 BNSS and gravity of offence , prayer for pre-arrest bail of the petitioner is rejected."upon hearing the application of the petitioner who apprehended arrest in a case registered for the offence punishable under section Section 115 (2), 126 (2), 65 (2), 351 (2), 352, 3 (5) of BNS,  4/8, POCSO Act. As per F.I.R. petitioner was alleged to have misbehaved with the minor daughter of informant and had also touched her private parts. The victim in her statement recorded under Section 183 of BNSS supported the prosecution case.

Supreme Court finds second anticipatory bail petition maintainable, reverses order by Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh

 

In Digvijay Narayan vs. The State of Bihar (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices J.K. Maheshwari and Atul S. Chandurkar passed a 4-page long order dated May 4, 2025, wherein, it reversed the order dated February 9, 2026 by Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh of Patna High Court. While issuing notice on April 7, 2026, by way of interim relief, the Supreme Court had issued direction for not taking coercive steps subject to cooperation in the investigation. 

The Court's order reads:"....we deem it appropriate to confirm the order of interim protection and deem it appropriate to release the petitioner on anticipatory bail....we direct that in the event of arrest, the petitioner shall be released on bail on furnishing suitable bail bonds and sureties and on such other terms and conditions as may be deemed fit by the Station House Officer of the concerned police station." 

Justice Singh's order had dismissed the second anticipatory bail petition as not maintainable, relying on the judgment of the Supreme Court in of G.R. Ananda Babu vs. State of Tamil Nadu & Anr. reported in 2021 SCC OnLine SC 176.  The petitioner had approached the Court apprehending his arrest in connection with a FIR dated November 29, 2024 registered at Police Station Industrial Area, District Vaishali, for the offences punishable under Sections 420, 467, 468, 471 and 120B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.  

Justice Singh's order dated August 27, 2025 with respect to the first anticipatory bail application had rejected it. It recorded the prosecution case, wherein, it was alleged that the petitioner, along with other accused persons, had fraudulently mutated the land of informant in the name of others on the basis of forged and fabricated documents. The counsel of petitioner had submitted that petitioner was quite innocent and had committed no offence. the petitioner was falsely implicated in this case merely because at the relevant time, the petitioner was posted as Revenue Clerk. The order had noted that the petitioner had two criminal antecedents. The order reads: "6. Considering the facts and circumstances of the case, nature of accusation and criminal antecedents of the petitioner, the prayer for grant of anticipatory bail to the petitioner is rejected."

Supreme Court's order has directed the petitioner to join the investigation as and when required and co-operate in the same abiding all the conditions as specified under Section 438(2) of the Cr.P.C./Section 482 of BNSS.

Full Bench of Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad, Jitendra Kumar, Dr. Anshuman to hear a NDPS case referred by Dr. Anshuman

In Md. Afsar @ Md. Afsar Alam vs. The State of Bihar, the Full Bench of Patna High Court comprising Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad, Jitendra Kumar  and Dr. Anshuman will take up the matter on May 5, 2026. The case arose from the 12-page long judgment dated may 8, 2024 delivered by  Dr. Anshuman in a case which had arisen out of PS. Case of 2021 from Kadwa, Katihar wherein he had referred:“16. This Court hereby refers this matter humbly before Hon’ble the Chief Justice to constitute Larger Bench for answering the reference to provide guidelines for the Trial Courts.” 

The petitioner sought regular bail in connection with Kadwa P.S. Case No. 144 of 2021 arising out of G.R. No.2365/2021, lodged on 20.06.2021 under Sections 8, 20(b) (ii),C of the N.D.P.S. Act read with section 30(a) of Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act. The petitioner submitted that the bail application of the petitioner was earlier rejected vide order dated 14.10.2022 passed in Cr. Misc. No. 72502 of 2021 with liberty granted to the petitioner that he may renew his prayer for bail one year after framing of charge. Counsel submits that the charge has been framed in this case on January 18, .2023 and more than one year has been lapsed, so bail may be granted to the petitioner. The counsel also submitted that the criminal antecedent of the petitioner was not clean and there were two criminal cases pending against him in which in both the cases, he is on bail. The petitioner was in custody since June 21, 2021 in the case. The State submitted that a report was been called for in the case and from the report which was received by the Court in 2024 from the Sessions Judge, Katihar. 

Section 8 of the NDPS Act reads:"Prohibition of certain operations.-No person shall (a) cultivate any coca plant or gather any portion of coca plant; or (b) cultivate the opium poppy or any cannabis plant; or (c) produce, manufacture, possess, sell, purchase, transport, warehouse, use, consume, import inter-State, export inter-State, import into India, export from India or tranship any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance, except for medical or scientific purposes and in the manner and to the extent provided by the provisions of this Act or the rules or orders made thereunder and in a case where any such provision, imposes any requirement by way of licence, permit or authorization also in accordance with the terms and conditions of such licence, permit or authorization: Provided that, and subject to the other provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder, the prohibition against the cultivation of the cannabis plant for the production of ganja or the production, possession, use, consumption, purchase, sale, transport, warehousing, import inter-State and export inter-State of ganja for any purpose other than medical and scientific purpose shall take effect only from the date which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify in this behalf: Provided further that nothing in this section shall apply to the export of poppy straw for decorative purposes."

Section 20(b) (ii),C of the N.D.P.S. Act reads:"Punishment for contravention in relation to cannabis plant and cannabis.-Whoever, in contravention of any provisions of this Act or any rule or order made or condition of licence granted thereunder, (a) cultivates any cannabis plant; or  (b) produces, manufactures, possesses, sells, purchases, transports, imports interState, exports inter-State or uses cannabis, shall be  punishable [(i) where such contravention relates to clause (a) with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to one lakh rupees; and (ii) where such contravention relates to sub-clause (b),  (A) and involves small quantity, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, which may extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both; (B) and involves quantity lesser than commercial quantity but greater than small quantity, with rigorous imprisonment for".

The High Court recorded that the Sessions Judge had raised a legal issue in his report which states as follows:- “5) On 26.06.2023, the Court of Exclusive Special Excise Court No.-2, Katihar split up the record in respect of offence u/s- 20(b)(ii), C of N.D.P.S Act from section 30(a) of Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 and on 04.12.2023 transferred this record to this court for trial of accused for offence under section 20(b)(ii), C of N.D.P.S Act, 1985 stating that as per section 84(1) of Bihar Excise Act, 2016 all Special Excise courts are exclusively designated for trial of offences under Excise Act only. Now trial for offences committed under Excise Act is being conducted in the Court of Exclusive Special Excise No.- 2, Katihar and trial for offences committed under N.D.P.S Act is being conducted in the Court of Sessions cum- Special Judge (NDPS Act), Katihar resulting into two separate trials creating multiplicity of trials for the parties. 6) In this regard, a letter no. 6092/2023 dated 23.12.2023 was sent seeking guideline from Hon'ble High Court of Judicature at Patna as to whether it would be proper that same accused person be tried by two different courts for committing offences covered by different Acts i.e offences under Excise Act be tried by the Exclusive Special Excise Court and Offences under N.D.P.S Act be tried by another court arising out of the same occurrence and P.S case number, whereas section 220(1) of Cr.P.C states that "If, in one series of act so connected together as to form the same transaction, more offences than one are committed by the same person, he may be charged with, and tried at one trial for every such offence." It was also respectfully submitted that till date, this court has not received any guideline from the Hon'ble High Court and it is still awaiting.” 

After going through the request made in the said letter, the High Court requested  senior counsel Bakshi SRP Singh, Advocate and Chakra Pani, Advocate to assist on this issue. The legal question was that in the case i.e. Kadwa P.S. Case No. 144 of 2021, offences under the Narcotic Drugs And Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 as well as under Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 were present and vide order dated June 26, 2023, the record was split up. One for the court of Exclusive Special Excise Court and another for trial of N.D.P.S. Court. The Sessions Judge raised issue that whether it would be proper that same accused person be tried by two different courts for committing offences covered by the different acts (N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 and Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016) arising out of the same occurrence and P.S case number, and arising out of one occurrence and one P.S particularly when section 220(1) of Cr.P.C. clearly states that “If, in one series of act so connected together as to form the same transaction, more offences than one are committed by the same person, he may be charged with, and tried at one trial for every such offence.”

With a view to answer this question, senior counsel for the petitioner submitted that the relevant provisions of N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 and Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 are necessary to be looked into. According to them, section 36-A (2) of the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 and section 83 and 84(3) of Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 are relevant which are as follows:-Section 36-A (2) of the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 states as:-“When trying an offence under this Act, a Special Court may also try an offence other than an offence under this Act with which the accused may, under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, be charged at the same trial.”

Section 83 of Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 states as:-“Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section(1) of section 76 of this Act, all offences punishable under this Act shall be tried by the Court of Sessions.” Section 84(3) of Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 states as:- “The trial under this Act of any offence by the Special Court shall have precedence over the trial of any other case against the accused in any other Court (not being a Special Court) and shall be concluded in preference to the trial of such other case.”

In addition to that, the provisions of section 220(1) of the Cr.P.C is also important.

The High Court on the basis of arguments made by the senior counsels as well as counsel Chakra Pani that the most relevant section for answering this question is section 36-A (2) of N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 which clearly states that when trying an offence under this act, a Special Court may also try an offence other than an offence under this Act with which the accused may, under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, be charged at the same trial. 

Admittedly, the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 is a central act and this subject comes within the purview of the List I- Union List (serial no.59) of the schedule 7 of the Constitution of India, whereas the Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 is the State act comes within the purview of the List II- State List (serial no.8) of the schedule 7 of the Constitution of India. Whereas, section 83 of the Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 states that Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section(1) of section 76 of this Act, all offences punishable under this Act shall be tried by the Court of Sessions. 

In this case, the Court which is trying the N.D.P.S. is the Sessions Court. The legislative direction under the Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act is that the trial shall be conducted by the Court of Sessions. Statement for deciding this issue is already laid down under section 36-A (2), where it has been stated by the law makers that Special Court may also try an offence other than an offence under this Act with which the accused may, under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, be charged at the same trial. The charges framed under the Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 has been made according to the principles and guidelines made in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and therefore, according to the act, it is well within the power of the N.D.P.S. Court to conduct the trial for the offences under N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 as well as under the Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016. 

In this case, due to the reason that the accused has to be charged under Cr.P.C. at the same trial and therefore, instead of two different trials, one trial before the
N.D.P.S. Court has to be continued.

The senior counsel N.K. Agrawal and Bakshi raised same voice that in the present situation, there should be one trial and it must be only and only before the N.D.P.S. Court as the N.D.P.S. Court is Sessions Court also. 

Chakra Pani submitted that for the purpose of deciding this issue, it is necessary to be looked into that N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 which is the Central act, whereas, the Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 is the State act. He also supports the arguments made by the senior counsel Bakshi and N.K. Agrawal and submitted that in the case, the trial shall definitely to be taken before the N.D.P.S. Court only.

In this case, the discussion took place only the situation relating to one State Act with Central Act for the present the Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 and N.D.P.S. Act, 1985. 

Justice Dr. Anshuman observed that on the basis of the discussion, “the Court is hereby answering only one question which has been placed before this Court in the report by the Sessions Court, Katihar on which the assistance has been provided by senior counsel and advocate being amicus curie. This Court fully agrees on the issue as answered by senior counsel Mr. Bakshi that there shall be no two trials for one FIR even if, there are two different offences i.e. one under Bihar Prohibition & Excise Act, 2016 and another under N.D.P.S. Act, 1985 and hence, this answer accordingly.”

In the penultimate paragraph, Justice  Dr. Anshuman concluded: “13. So far as the merit of this case is concerned, this Court hereby grants bail to the petitioner on furnishing bail bonds of Rs.30,000/- (Rupees Thirty thousand) with two sureties of the like amount each to the satisfaction of learned Special Judge, Katihar in connection with Kadwa P.S. Case No. 144 of 2021 arising out of G.R. No.2365/2021, subject to the conditions as laid down U/s 437(3) Cr.P.C. as well as the following conditions: 
(i) one of the bailor should be the family member of the petitioner who shall provide official document to show his bona fide;
(ii) the petitioner shall appear on each and every date before the Trial Court and failure to do so for two consecutive dates without plausible reason will entail cancellation of his bail bonds by the Trial Court itself;
(iii) the petitioner shall appear before the concerned police station every month for one year to mark attendance;
(iv) the petitioner shall in no way try to induce or promise or threat the witnesses or tamper with the evidence, failing which the State shall be at liberty to take steps for cancellation of the bail bonds; and
(v) the petitioner shall desist from committing any criminal offence again, failing which the State shall be at liberty to take steps for cancellation of the bail bonds.
14. However, the petitioner shall be granted bail only on being satisfied by the Trial Court that the petitioner is not absconding in any of the cases pending against him whose details are as follows:-
(I)- Katihar Rail P.S. Case No. 1 of 2011.
(II)- Katihar Mahila P.S. Case No. 87 of 2016.”

Justice Dr. Anshuman observed:”15. After passing the order of disposal in this case, I find, there are questions necessary to be answered with a view to find solution to problem which has arisen ad-nauseam before the Trial Court. Therefore, it is essential to be tested by the Larger Bench for which reference is necessary to be framed which are as follows:-“The Trial of a criminal case has to be conducted before which Court?
(a) When, the said criminal case has been lodged under two or more offences, which come under different Central Acts for which two or more different Special Courts assigned for trial under statutes.
(b) When, the said criminal case has been lodged under two or more offences which comes under one or more Central act and one or more State act having two or more different Special Courts assigned for trial under statutes.
(c) When, the said criminal case has been lodged under two or more offences which come under I.P.C. and Special Acts having different situations viz.,
(i) offences of I.P.C. provides higher punishment and Special Act provides lower punishment (For example:- a case under section 420 of the I.P.C. for which warrant trial prescribed with section 7 of the E.C. Act for which summary trial prescribed under law.
(ii) section 302 of the I.P.C. for which Sessions Trial provided with offences under Excise Act for which Special trial provided.
(iii) offences under I.P.C., Excise Act and E.C. Act (special law special trial)
(iv) offences under section 420 I.P.C. for which warrant trial provided with offences of section 138 of N.I. Act for which summary trial provided.”

Sunday, May 3, 2026

Allegations against Pawan Khera appear politically motivated, influenced by political rivalry: Supreme Court

In Pawan  Khera vs. State of Assam (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices J.K. Maheshwari and Atuk S. Chandukar passed a 22-page long order dated April 30, 2026, wherein, it referred to Court's decision in Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia & Ors. vs. State of Punjab 1980) 2 SCC 565 granted anticipatory bail to Pawan Khera, observing that the purported allegations of forgery, appeared to be politically motivated and influenced by political rivalry, not warranting custodial interrogation. The case originated from a Guwahati press conference where Pawan Khera alleged that Riniki Bhuyan Sarma, the wife of the Assam Chief Minister, held multiple international passports and had invested ₹50,000 crores in a U.S.-based company. 

The Court concluded:"....we are of the view that the tests as enumerated for grant of anticipatory bail in Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia (supra) finds favour with the Appellant. 27) In our view, the observations as made by the High Court in the order impugned is not based on correct appreciation of all the material which has been placed on record and appears to be erroneous, in particular shifting the burden on the accused. In addition, without alleging any offence under Section 339 of BNS and merely on the basis of statement made by the learned Advocate General, observations made regarding Section 339 of BNS do not appear to be correct. Accordingly, the present appeal stands allowed with following directions –
a) The Appellant is directed to be released on anticipatory bail in the event of his arrest in Crime Branch P.S. Case No. 04/2026 and on such reasonable terms and conditions which may be put by the Investigating Officer as deemed fit;
b) The Appellant is directed to co-operate in the investigation and to appear before the police station as  and when required and intimated;
c) The Appellant shall not influence or tamper with any of the evidence during pendency of the investigation or trial;
d) Further, he shall not leave India without prior leave of the competent Court;
e) We further direct that if the trial Court deems it fit to impose some other conditions, it has the discretion to do the needful and put those conditions during trial.
28) We further make it clear that the reference of the documents and the material made hereinabove is only for the purpose of consideration of grant of anticipatory bail and it has nothing to do with the merits of the criminal case. Therefore, the competent Court shall not be influenced by those observations and shall proceed in the matter in accordance with law.

In Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia & Ors. vs. State of Punjab 1980) 2 SCC 565, the Court observed, “…the criminal process must be applied with objectivity and circumspection so as to ensure that individual liberty is not imperiled by proceedings that may be coloured by political rivalry…”

Dr. Abhishek Manu Singhvi, senior counsel, appearing on behalf of the appellant assailed order dated April 24, 2026 passed by the Gauhati High Court of Assam in Anticipatory Bail No. 804/2026, whereby, the Gauhati High Court refused to grant anticipatory bail. The appellant made an accused in connection with FIR No. 04/2026 dated 06.04.2026 registered by the Crime Branch Police Station, Guwahati under Sections 175, 3(5), 3(6), 318, 336(4), 337, 338, 340, 341(1), 351(1), 352, 353, 356, and 61(2) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.

In the FIR, it was alleged that the appellant, who was an office bearer of a national political party, addressed two press conferences on April 5, 2026, one at All India Congress Committee headquarters, New Delhi, and other at Hotel Lily, Gauhati. In the press conferences, the appellant displayed certain documents on the stage with a large screen in the background, inter alia, stating that the complainant is the wife of the present Chief Minister of Assam and she holds three passports of (i) Egypt; (ii) United Arab Emirates; (iii) Antigua and Barbuda. He also stated that the documents shown on the screen exist as on date and have not expired. Showing some other documents in similar manner, it was also stated that the complainant had a company registered at Wyoming, USA with an investment of more than Rs. 50,000/-crores. She also owned and possesses certain assets and properties in Dubai and these facts were not disclosed in the election affidavit filed by the husband of the complainant. The complainant while lodging FIR denied the veracity of all these documents and stated that they were fabricated using forged seals and QR codes. On the basis of these averments appropriate criminal action for the offences was sought. The press conferences allegedly was held on April 5, 2026 at about 6 p.m. in the evening and the FIR was registered at 12.49 a.m. in the intervening night of April 5, 2026 and April 6, 2026. After giving such statements the Appellant travelled to Delhi and later to Hyderabad.

On the next date, i.e., April 7, 2026, search and seizure proceedings were undertaken by the State through the police authorities at the residence of the appellant in Delhi. Simultaneously, an application was also filed before the Chief Judicial Magistrate, Kamrup (M) seeking issuance of non-bailable warrant of arrest against the Appellant which was rejected on the same date, inter alia observing that the grounds urged were based on presumptions and conjectures without being supported by any material on record. It was also observed that the offences as alleged were cognizable and non-bailable, therefore, the IO had the authority to arrest the appellant under Section 35 of the BNSS. The application seeking issuance of the non-bailable warrant was rejected. 

The appellant sought transit anticipatory bail before the Telangana High Court which was granted vide order dated April 10, 2026. Challenging the same, the State filed Special Leave Petition (Criminal) No. before the Supreme Court, wherein initially by order dated April 15, 2026, the operation of the order of the Telangana High Court was stayed. The appellant sought vacation of the stay and the SLP (Crl.) as well as the I.A. were disposed of by order dated April 17, 2026 granting liberty to the appellant to file an application seeking anticipatory bail before the competent Court in Assam. It was also observed that upon filing such application it be decided uninfluenced by the observations made by the Telangana High Court in the order dated April 10, 2026 or by the Supreme Court while staying the said order. On filing the application seeking anticipatory bail before the Gauhati High Court, it was rejected by impugned order dated April 24, 2026, which gave rise to the appeal.

Supreme Court's order reads:"....we are of the opinion that while adjudicating an application for anticipatory bail, a careful balance must be struck between the State’s interest in ensuring a fair investigation and the individual’s fundamental right to personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, in light of the principles enunciated in Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia (supra). In this context, the criminal process must be applied with objectivity and circumspection so as to ensure that individual liberty is not imperiled by proceedings that may be coloured by political rivalry. We are further of the opinion that the allegations and counter-allegations, as apparent in the present case, prima facie, appear to be politically motivated and seemingly influenced by such rivalry, rather than disclosing a situation warranting custodial interrogation, and the veracity of the allegations can be tested at trial. The right to personal liberty is a cherished fundamental right, and any deprivation thereof must be justified on a higher threshold, particularly where the surrounding circumstances may indicate the presence of political overtones."

Notably, the Constitution Bench judgment in the case of Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia observed:
“31. In regard to anticipatory bail, if the proposed accusation appears to stem not from motives of furthering the ends of justice but from some ulterior motive, the object being to injure and humiliate the applicant by having him arrested, a direction for the release of the applicant on bail in the event of his arrest would generally be made. On the other hand, if it appears likely, considering the antecedents of the applicant, that taking advantage of the order of anticipatory bail he will flee from justice, such an order would not be made. But the converse of these propositions is not necessarily true. That is to say, it cannot be laid down as an inexorable rule that anticipatory bail cannot be granted unless the proposed accusation appears to be actuated by mala fides; and, equally, that anticipatory bail must be granted if there is no fear that the applicant will abscond. There are several other considerations, too numerous to enumerate, the combined effect of which must weigh with the court while granting or rejecting anticipatory bail. The nature and seriousness of the proposed charges, the context of the events likely to lead to the making of the charges, a reasonable possibility of the applicant's presence not being secured at the trial, a reasonable apprehension that witnesses will be tampered with and “the larger interests of the public or the State” are some of the considerations which the court has to keep in mind while deciding an application for anticipatory bail.

Notably, the relevance of these considerations was pointed out in State vs. Captain Jagjit Singh [AIR 1962 SC 253 : (1962) 3 SCR 622 : (1962) 1 Cri LJ 216] , which, though, was a case under the old Section 498 which corresponds to the present Section 439 of the Code. It is of paramount consideration to remember that the freedom of the individual is as necessary for the survival of the society as it is for the egoistic purposes of the individual. A person seeking anticipatory bail is still a free man entitled to the presumption of innocence. He is willing to submit to restraints on his freedom, by the acceptance of conditions which the court may think fit to impose, in consideration of the assurance that if arrested, he shall be enlarged on bail.”

The Privy Council in King Emperor vs. Khwaja Nasir Ahmed observed:"Just as it is essential that every one accused of a crime should have free access to a court of justice so that he may be duly acquitted if found not guilty of the offence with which he is charged, so it is of the utmost importance that the judiciary should not interfere with the police in matters which are within their province and into which the law imposes on them the duty of inquiry. The functions of the Judiciary and the Police are complementary, not overlapping, and the combination of the individual liberty with a due observance of law and order is only to be obtained by leaving each to exercise its own function...."

The Supreme Court in Balchand Jain vs. State of Madhya Pradesh, Justices Bhagwati and A. C. Gupta, observed:"the power of granting 'anticipatory bail' is somewhat extraordinary in character and it is only in exceptional cases where it appears that a person might be falsely implicated, or a frivolous case might be launched against him, or "there are reasonable grounds for holding that a person accused of an offence is not likely to abscond, or otherwise misuse his liberty while on bail" that such power is to be exercised."

Justice Fazal Ali delivered a separate judgment of concurrence observed that:"an order for anticipatory bail is an extraordinary remedy available in special cases" and proceeded to say:"As Section 438 immediately follows s. 437 which is the main provision for bail in respect of non- bailable offences, it is manifest that the conditions imposed by s. 437 (1) are implicitly contained in s. 438 of the Code. Otherwise the result would be that a person who is accused of murder can get away under s. 438 by obtaining an order for anticipatory bail without the necessity of proving that there were reasonable grounds for believing that he was not guilty of offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Such a course would render the provisions of s. 437 nugatory and will give a free licence to the accused persons charged with non-bailable offences to get easy bail by approaching the Court under s. 438 and by-passing s. 437 of the Code. This, we feel, could never have been the intention of the Legislature. Section 438 does not contain unguided or uncanalised powers to pass an order for anticipatory bail, but such an order being of an exceptional type can only be passed if, apart from the conditions mentioned in s. 437, there is a special case made out for passing the order. The words "for a direction under this section" and "Court may, if it thinks fit, direct" clearly show that the Court has to be guided by a large number of considerations including those mentioned in s. 437 of the Code."
In his conclusion, Justice Fazal Ali reiterated in conclusion no.3 that "Section 438 of the Code is an extraordinary remedy and should be resorted to only in special cases." 

In paragraph 3 of his judgment, he observed that "the only point" which arose for consideration before the Court was whether the provisions of Section 438 relating to anticipatory bail stand overruled and repealed by virtue of Rule 184 of the Defence and Internal Security of India Rules, 1971 or whether both the provisions can, by the rule of harmonious interpretation, exist side by side. Bhagwati, J. has also stated in his judgment, after adverting to Section 438 that Rule 184 is what the Court was concerned with in the appeal. The observations made in Balchand Jain (supra) regarding the nature of the power conferred by Section 438 and regarding the question whether the conditions mentioned in Section 437 should be read into Section 438 cannot therefore be treated as concluding the points which arise directly for our consideration. We agree, with respect, that the power conferred by Section 438 is of an extraordinary character in the sense indicated above, namely, that it is not ordinarily resorted to like the power conferred by Sections 437 and
439. We also agree that the power to grant anticipatory bail should be exercised with due care and circumspection but beyond that, it is not possible to agree with the observations made in Balchand Jain (supra) in an altogether different context on an altogether different point."

The Court wrote: "We find a great deal of substance in Mr. Tarkunde's submission that since denial of bail amounts to deprivation of personal liberty, the Court should lean against the imposition of unnecessary restrictions on the scope of Section 438, especially when no such restrictions have been imposed by the legislature in the terms of that section. Section 438 is a procedural provision which is concerned with the personal liberty of the individual, who is entitled to the benefit of the presumption of innocence since he is not, on the date of his application for anticipatory bail, convicted of the offence in respect of which he seeks bail. An overgenerous infusion of constraints and conditions which are not to be found in Section 438 can make its provisions constitutionally vulnerable since the right to personal freedom cannot be made to depend on compliance with unreasonable restrictions. The beneficient provision contained in Section 438 must be saved, not jettisoned. No doubt can linger after the decision in Maneka Gandhi that in order to meet the challenge of Article 21 of the Constitution, the procedure established by law for depriving a person of his liberty must be fair, just and reasonable. Section 438, in the form in which it is conceived by the legislature, is open to no exception on the ground that it prescribes a procedure which is unjust or unfair. We ought, at all costs, to avoid throwing it open to a Constitutional challenge by reading words in it which are not be found therein.It is not necessary to refer to decisions which deal with the right to ordinary bail because that right does not furnish an exact parallel to the right to anticipatory bail."

The Court noted that as long back as in 1924 it was held by the High Court of Calcutta in Nagendra vs. King Emperor that the object of bail is to secure the attendance of the accused at the trial, that the proper test to be applied in the solution of the question whether bail should be granted or refused is whether it is probable that the party will appear to take his trial and that it is indisputable that bail is not to be withheld as a punishment.
 In K. N. Joglekar vs. Emperor it was observed, while dealing with Section 498 which corresponds to the present Section 439 of the Code, that it conferred upon the Sessions Judge or the High Court wide powers to grant bail which were not handicapped by the restrictions in the preceding Section 497 which corresponds to the present Section 437. It was observed by the Court that there was no hard and fast rule and no inflexible principle governing the exercise of the discretion conferred by Section 498 and that the only principle which was established was that the discretion should be exercised judiciously.

In Emperor vs. H. L. Hutchinson it was said that it was very unwise to make an attempt to lay down any particular rules which will bind the High Court, having regard to the fact that the legislature itself left the discretion of the Court unfettered. According to the High Court, the variety of cases that may arise from time to time cannot be safely classified and it is dangerous to make an attempt to classify the cases and to say that in particular classes a bail may be granted but not in other classes. It was observed that the principle to be deduced from the various sections in the Criminal Procedure Code was that grant of bail is the rule and refusal is the exception. An accused person who enjoys freedom is in a much better position to look after his case and to properly defend himself than if he were in custody. As a presumably innocent person he is therefore entitled to freedom and every opportunity to look after his own case. A presumably innocent person must have his freedom to enable him to establish his innocence.

It was observed by Justice Krishna Iyer  in Gudikanti Narasimhulu vs. Public Prosecutor, High Court of Andhra Pradesh that "the issue of bail is one of liberty, justice, public safety and burden of the public treasury, all of which insist that a developed jurisprudence of bail is integral to a socially sensitized judicial process. After all, personal liberty of an accused or convict is fundamental, suffering lawful eclipse only in terms of procedure established by law. The last four words of Article 21 are the life of that human right."


Saturday, May 2, 2026

As part of Division Bench Justice Partha Sarthy concludes:"Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) (Amendment) Act, 2016 and the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) (Amendment) Act, 2019 are held to be constitutionally valid"

In Sudhakar Jha & Ors. vs. The State of Bihar and Ors. reported in 2024 (3) PLJR 403 (DB), the Division Bench of the Patna High Court of Chief Justice K. Vinod Chandran and Justice Partha Sarthy delivered a 174-page long judgement dated October13, 2023 upon hearing  the applications which challenged the constitutional validity of the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) (Amendment) Act, 2016 as also that of the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Surplus Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) (Amendment) Act, 2019. The operative part is from page no. 128 on wards. It was heard with numerous anlogous cases.  The petitioners had also challenged the orders passed in their respective case by different authorities including the Additional Collector, the Commissioner of the Division and the Bihar Land Tribunal, all of which arose out of applications for pre-emption filed under section 16(3) of the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) Act, 1961. 

The applications contended that the amendments are against the fundamental rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution as also against the principles of natural justice. It was ultra vires Article 14 of the Constitution, against the legal rights and also takes away the vested right of an individual. Section 16(3) of the Act was repealed in an arbitrary manner without assigning any cogent reasons and the amendment was arbitrary, unconstitutional, unreasonable and ultra vires the parent Act. It should not be made applicable with retrospective affect. The amendment effected was not only in excess of the power granted under the Constitution; assent of the President; without which it was otiose, was not taken before its promulgation. The parties were harassed on account of pendency of the cases for decades and now the petitioners’ peremptory rights have been ordered to have abated. It was also contended that the amendment affected was beyond the competence of the State legislature and on account of repeal of section 45B of the Act, the statutory remedy of appeal/revision as was earlier available has been taken away without providing for any forum for adjudication of the disputes. The contention was that the amendments be declared ultra vires the Constitution and the same be set aside.

Kamal Nayan Choubey, senior counsel submitted that pursuant to Article 38 of the Constitution which provides a mandate for the State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people and Article 39, which lays down six Directive Principles, some of which are to ensure means of equal livelihood to men and women, ownership and control of resources be distributed to serve the best interest of the people, avoid concentration of wealth, ensure equal pay for equal work of men and women etc; legislative steps were taken in all the States as also in the State of Bihar. The same led to the enactment of the Bihar Land Reforms Act, 1950, the Bihar Consolidation of Holdings and Prevention of Fragmentation
Act, 1956 and the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) Act, 1961. It was further contended that the Act which provided for fixation of ceiling area of land which a person could hold and the object of which was equitable distribution of land, after receiving the assent of the President was published in the gazette on April 19, 1962. At the time of all important amendments in the Act, whenever the State Government felt that major provisions are being deleted, the assent of the President was obtained. As the Presidential assent has not been obtained in the instant case, in absence thereof, the amendment is unconstitutional. He submitted that the Act was promulgated by the Government of Bihar pursuant to the subjects enumerated at item no.18 of the State List and item no.42 of the Concurrent List, of the 7th Schedule of the Constitution. Further, the Act having been enacted after obtaining the assent of the President, the same cannot be taken away in this manner. Even if it is held to be a curable defect, unless the defect is cured the same cannot be implemented. 

Referring to the principles of law laid down in Taylor vs. Taylor, (1875) 1 Ch. D. 426 that where a power is given to do a certain thing in a certain way, the thing must be done in that way or not at all, Choubey, the senior counsel had contended that the Presidential assent was a mandatory requirement and even now assent could be obtained; without which the amendments would have no effect.  It was next contended that the protection of Article 31A of the Constitution will not be available to the Amendment Acts, impugned herein, in absence of the President’s assent in view of the first proviso to Article 31A.

Choubey placed reliance on the judgments in Mahant Shankarshan Ramanuja Das Goswami vs. State of
Orissa & Anr., AIR 1967 SC 59; Sriram Narayan Medhi vs. The State of Maharashtra, AIR 1971 SC 199; State of Haryana vs. Jai Singh & Ors., 2022 SCC OnLine SC 418; Pt. Rishikesh & Anr. vs. Salma Begum, (1995) 4 SCC 718 and Anita Kushwaha vs. Pushap Sudan, AIR 2016 SC 3506.

Jitendra Kishore Verma, the counsel for the petitioner submitted that the right to pre-emption is a very old
right, history of which could be traced to the period of Mughals. The question to be asked is as to why section 16(3) of the Act was brought and has the constitutional goal or it’s purpose been achieved. For the purpose behind the ceiling law as also the law of pre-emption, placed reliance on judgments in Bhau Ram vs. Baij Nath Singh & Ors., AIR 1962 SC 1476 and Kedar Mishra vs. State of Bihar & Ors., AIR 2016 SC 2110. He relied on judgment in Ram Sagar Rai vs. The State of Bihar & Ors., 2017 (1) PLJR 2019 to submit that section 16(3) of the Act was a beneficial legislation enacted to prevent fragmentation of holding and to facilitate consolidation. A statute is best interpreted when we know as to why it was enacted; reference may be made to the case of Gaurav Aseem Avtej vs. U.P. State Sugar Corporation. Ltd. & Ors., (2018) 6 SCC 518. In Atam Prakash vs. State of Haryana & Ors., AIR 1986 SC 859 the right of pre-emption was held to be reasonable as also constitutionally valid. Reliance was also placed on the judgment in Suresh Prasad Singh vs. Dulhin Phulkumari Devi & Ors., 2010 (2) PLJR 167 (SC), wherein, it was held that the right has been recognised by the statute. 

J. S. Arora, learned senior advocate, appearing on behalf of the petitioners placed reliance on the judgment in Godavari Sugar Mills Ltd. vs. S.B. Kamble & Ors., AIR 1975 SC 1193 to submit that for the State to claim immunity of Article 31B of the Constitution, although, the original Act was in the 9th Schedule, it was required that the amending Act also be in the 9th Schedule and for the same, assent of the President is required to be obtained. It was further submitted that the amendment creates ambiguity in so far as it does not provide as to how the landlord gets his land back. Even if a person was entitled to get the land as pre-emptor, the proceedings having abated, the person gets back his amount which included the consideration amount with 10% thus causing great hardship. The Court should examine it’s rationality, which in view of the judgment of the Supreme Court in I.R. Coelho vs. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 2007 SC 861, could be done even if the law was granted protection by including the same in the 9th Schedule of the Constitution. With regard to the Amendment Act, 2016, Arora submitted that in case land of some person was sold without his knowledge and later he comes to know about it being subject matter of a ceiling proceeding, on deletion of section 45B of the Act, he becomes remedy-less. This type of amendment cannot be upheld.

Nagendra Rai, the counsel appearing for the petitioners submitted that section 45B of the Act was introduced by way of amendment in the year 1978. There are three categories of transfers. One of the period prior to 1959 for which there was no embargo, the second for the period from 1959 to 1970 when permission of the Collector was to be sought and lastly for the period after the cut-off date of September 9, 1970. Section 9 of the Act deals with exercise of option and how land transferred is to be adjusted. The judgment in Bisheshwar Prasad Yadav vs. State of Bihar & Ors., 1999 (3) PLJR 117 provides that land transferred in contravention of section 5 of the Act, to the extent not exceeding ceiling area be deemed to have been selected by him within the ceiling area. Reliance was also placed on the judgement in Mohammad Kajimuddin vs. State of Bihar, 2005 (4) PLJR 718 where it was held that transfers made in contravention of section 5(i) and (ii) of the Act will go in share of the land holder and shall not form part of surplus to be acquired by the State. It was lastly submitted that in Sunil Kumar vs. State of Bihar, 2004 (2) PLJR 820 the scope of application of section 45B of the Act has been dealt with. By deletion of section 45B, large number of persons will be left remedy-less.

P. K. Shahi, Advocate General appearing for the State of Bihar submitted that there was no argument by the petitioners on the legislative competence of the State to legislate. The grounds that an Act can be held to be not constitutionally valid, are mainly the same being in violation of Part III of the Constitution, the State lacking legislative competence or the same being violative of some other provision of the Constitution. The power to legislate was solely with the State, which would be evident form perusal of Item no.18 of the State List under the Seventh Schedule. It was submitted that only in the case of a law falling under the scope of Article 31A of the Constitution that the assent of the President was required. So far as the principal Act as originally enacted in the year 1961 is concerned, the same deals with the acquisition and vesting of land. The Act received the President’s assent on March 8, 1962 and was published in the Bihar Gazette (Extraordinary) on 19.4.1962. Section 16(3) or section 45B of the Act not being in violation of any provision of the Constitution, no presidential assent was required. It was submitted that the right of pre-emptor was not a fundamental right but a statutory right which flowed from the Act. No law can be invalidated only on account of some person facing difficulty. The ground on which an Act could be declared unconstitutional are that it contravenes any fundamental right, legislating on a subject which is not assigned to the relevant legislature, contravenes a mandatory provision of the Constitution or in case of a State law it seeks to operate beyond its boundaries and impinges upon the legislative power of the Union Parliament. The Advocate General submitted that it was not that section 45D of the Amending Act, 2016 was challenged but the entire Amendment Act was under challenge. The newly added section 45D provides that after repeal of section 45B of the Act, the proceedings pending before the State Government or the Bihar Land Tribunal shall be deemed to be abated and the proceedings reopened earlier under the now deleted section 45B of the Act and pending before the Collector shall also stand abated. This amendment was introduced to give a quietus to the issues. It was lastly submitted that whole of the principal Act could also be repealed and in so repealing, neither any Presidential assent was required nor any other provision of the Constitution would come in the way of such repeal.

Basant Kumar Choudhary, senior advocate appearing for the respondents, submitted that the original Ceiling Act is a progressive legislation. So far as section 16(3) of the Act which dealt with the right of pre-
emption is concerned, the same was a supplementary right and not main purpose of the Act. The High Court in Banarsi Yadav vs. Krishna Chandra Das, 1971 BJR 1077 held that the Act being a protective legislation cannot be challenged on the ground of violation of Articles 14 and 19, section 16(3) of the Act was held to be valid and the reference made held to be incompetent. It was also submitted that section 16 of the Act did not help in consolidation and section 16(3) is not protected by the 9th Schedule. The informed wisdom of the State Legislature cannot be questioned nor are the amendments ultra vires. A Full Bench of the High Court vide its judgment dated March 12, 1951 declared the Bihar Land Reforms Act, 1950 as ultra vires on the ground of it infringing Article 14 of the Constitution, which led to the first Constitutional amendment and such laws were included in the 9th Schedule of the Constitution. The Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) Act, 1961 was enacted, it received the assent of the President on 8.3.1962 and was published in Bihar Gazette (Extraordinary) on 19.4.1962. It was an Act to provide for fixation of ceiling, restriction on subletting and resumption by certain raiyats for personal cultivation of land, acquisition of status of raiyat by certain under-raiyats and acquisition of surplus land by the State, the object being equitable distribution of land. 

By the Amendment Act, 2019, sub-section (3) of section 16 of the Act, which gave the right of pre-emption was repealed and sub-section (4) was added to section 16 which provided that all cases or proceedings pending before any of the authorities/tribunals/Court shall be deemed to have abated and the purchase money together with the sum equal to 10% shall be refunded to the depositor without any interest. By the Amendment Act, 2019, amendments were carried out in section 16 of the Act. Section 16(3) which gave the Right of Pre-emption was repealed and newly added section 16(4) provided that all cases of proceedings after repeal of section 16(3) shall abate and the purchase money together with 10% thereof, without any interest, shall be refunded to the depositor.

By the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) (Amendment) Act, 2016, besides adding new sub-sections (3) and (4) to section 30 and sub-section (4) to section 32, section 45B of the Act was repealed. Further, a new section 45D was added which provided that the proceedings pending before the State Government or the Bihar Land Tribunal or those reopened under the deleted section 45B and pending before the Collector shall all stand abated. 

The judgement was authored by Justice Partha Sarthy. In the penultimate paragraph, it reads: "....the Court finds no merit in the challenge by the petitioners in these batch of cases to the Constitutional validity of the two Amendment Acts. Both, the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) (Amendment) Act, 2016 and the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) (Amendment) Act, 2019 are held to be constitutionally valid. 49. Both the amendment Acts of 2016 and 2019 having been held to be Constitutionally valid, the question which would arise is as to how would the individual cases, arising out of an application of right to pre-emption under section 16(3) of the Act and which are pending adjudication at different stages are to be decided. The right of preemption which arose from section 16(3) of the Act having been repealed by the Amendment Act, 2019, it may be stated that clause 2(2) of the Amendment Act, 2019 provides that after repeal of section 16(3) of the Act, all cases or proceedings pending before the State Government, Board of Revenue, the Bihar Land Tribunal, the Divisional Commissioner, the Collector, the Additional Collector, the Deputy Collector Land Reforms or in any other Court shall be deemed to be abated and pursuant to the repeal any purchase money together with the sum equal to 10% thereof shall be refunded to the depositor, without any interest."

The judgement concluded: "52. The applications stand disposed of in the following terms:-(i) The applications so far as the challenge to the constitutional validity of the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) (Amendment) Act, 2016 as also that of the Bihar Land Reforms (Fixation of Surplus Area and Acquisition of Surplus Land) (Amendment) Act, 2019 are concerned, stand dismissed.... Both Section 45D and 16(4) provide for the consequence upon repeal of Section 45B and Section 16(3) of the Act. The language of Section 45D is different from that of Section 16(4). While Section 16(4) provides that all cases of proceedings pending before the Tribunal or the Authorities mentioned therein 'or in any other Court' shall abate, the words 'or in any other Court' does not find mention in Section 45D. Thus, in this view of the matter, the Court is of the opinion that those matters arising out of an application under Section 45B of the Act having been decided by the Authorities or the Tribunal and applications preferred against the said orders being pending in this Court, though the Constitutional validity of the Amendment Act, 2016 has been upheld, these cases will have to be listed before the appropriate bench having roster, for it to be decided on it's own merits.....”