Tuesday, April 22, 2025

Only remedy against a compromise decree Is to file a recall application

In Manjunath Tirakappa Malagi vs. Gurusiddappa Tirakappa Malagi (D) 2025 INSC 517, Supreme Court dealt with Irder XXIII Rule 3 CPC and concluded that "Once the Court passes a compromise decree after such a satisfaction, the decree cannot be challenged in an appeal as no appeal lies against a compromise decree'. Also, a compromise decree cannot be challenged by filing a fresh suit as there is a bar on filing a fresh suit challenging.... The only remedy against a compromise decree Is to file a recall application."

This appeal arose out of pure civil proceedings initiated at the hands of the appellants in the year 2003. The appellants had filed a suit for declaring a compromise decree entered into between the respondents (defendants) as null and void, and not binding on the appellants. 

The law governing a consent decree is Order 23 Rule 3 of CPC, which deals with compromise decree. It reads as follows:

“3. Compromise of suit.— Where it is proved to the satisfaction of the Court that a suit has been adjusted wholly or in part by any lawful agreement or compromise, in writing and signed by the parties or where the defendant satisfies the plaintiff in respect of the whole or any part of the subject-matter of the suit, the Court shall order such agreement, compromise or satisfaction to be recorded, and shall pass a decree in accordance therewith so far as it relates to the parties to the suit, whether or not the subject-matter of the agreement, compromise or satisfaction is the same as the subject-matter of the suit:

Provided that where it is alleged by one party and denied by the other that an adjustment or satisfaction has been arrived at, the Court shall decide the question; but no adjournment shall be granted for the purpose of deciding the question, unless the Court, for reasons to be recorded, thinks fit to grant such adjournment.

Explanation.—An agreement or compromise which is void or voidable under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (9 of 1872), shall not be deemed to be lawful within the meaning of this rule” Thus, a reading of the above provision makes it clear that before passing a decree on the basis of a compromise, the Court has to satisfy itself that the suit has been adjusted by a 7 lawful compromise. Once the Court passes a compromise decree after such a satisfaction, the decree cannot be challenged in an appeal as no appeal lies against a compromise decree. 

A compromise decree cannot be challenged by filing a fresh suit as there is a bar on filing a fresh suit challenging the consent decree on the ground of the legality of the compromise under Order 23 Rule 3A of CPC. It reads as follows:

“3-A. Bar to suit.— No suit shall lie to set aside a decree on the ground that the compromise on which the decree is based was not lawful.”

The only remedy against a compromise decree is to file a recall application. The Supreme Court in Pushpa Devi Bhagat v. Rajinder Singh, (2006) 5 SCC 566 summed up the position of law as follows:

“17. The position that emerges from the amended provisions of Order 23 can be summed up thus:

(i) No appeal is maintainable against a consent decree having regard to the specific bar contained in Section 96(3) CPC.

(ii) No appeal is maintainable against the order of the court recording the compromise (or refusing to record a 1 Section 96(3) of CPC: No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties.

(iii) No independent suit can be filed for setting aside a compromise decree on the ground that the compromise was not lawful in view of the bar contained in Rule 3-A.

(iv) A consent decree operates as an estoppel and is valid and binding unless it is set aside by the court which passed the consent decree, by an order on an application under the proviso to Rule 3 Order 23. Therefore, the only remedy available to a party to a consent decree to avoid such consent decree, is to approach the court which recorded the compromise and made a decree in terms of it, and establish that there was no compromise. In that event, the court which recorded the compromise will itself consider and decide the question as to whether there was a valid compromise or not. This is so because a consent decree is nothing but contract between parties superimposed with the seal of approval of the court. The validity of a consent decree depends wholly on the validity of the agreement or compromise on which it is made…” (Emphasis Provided) Thus, even if we accept the contention of the appellants that their father was coerced by his brothers and father (appellants’ grandfather) to enter into a compromise, which led to the passing of the consent decree, a fresh suit is still not a valid remedy. In that situation, the appellants’ father should have 9 filed a recall application before the Court that had passed the decree. The appellants’ father has never done so! Moreover, he had admitted the consent decree and never questioned its validity.

The appellants' argument that the suit property is not a joint family property but was purchased by their grandmother in the name of the appellants’ father and that he is now trying to deprive the appellants from the suit property as their relations have turned sour, was of no help to them. This is because if the appellants’ grandmother had purchased the suit property in the name of the appellants’ father, and it is not a part of the ancestral property then in that case it would be the property of the appellants’ father as of now, since he is alive, and he is at full liberty to dispose of the same as per his wishes. Be that as it may, if the father of the appellants has no grievance against the consent decree, then we are unable to understand how the appellants can be allowed to challenge it.

The Court observed that "the appellants’ case has no merits. The appellants’ suit is also barred under Order 2 Rule 2 of CPC as it did not include all the properties which were part of their earlier suit. The present suit is also hit by the principles of res judicata or 10 by constructive res judicata as the appellants cannot re-agitate their claim regarding the partition of the suit property, which has already been partitioned as a result of previous litigations. The Trial Court and High Court have dealt with these issues in detail. We are not required to go into the same as we have already given our reasons above for holding that the appellants’ suit is bereft of any merits."

The Court concluded:"we see no reason to interfere with the impugned order dated 23.09.2022 passed by the High Court. Accordingly, this appeal is dismissed."

Monday, April 21, 2025

Supreme Court upholds descision of Bombay High Court on Urdu

Urdu and Hindi are not two languages, but it is one language. Urdu and Hindi are mentioned as two different languages in our Constitution, but that is political expediency, not a linguistic reality." Their recognition as two separate languages under the Constitution need not deter linguists from questioning the scientific validity of their separation. 

-Supreme Court of India, April 15, 2025

In Ms. Varshatai, w/o Sanjay Bagade vs. The State of Maharashtra & Ors. Etc., Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices Sudhanshu Dhulia and K. Vinod Chandran concluded:"The display of an additional language cannot, by itself, be said to be in violation of the provisions of the 2022 Act. The High Court while reaching the above findings had considered the relevant provisions of law. We completely agree with the reasoning given by the High Court that there is no prohibition on the use of Urdu under the 2022 Act or in any provision of law. The entire case of the appellant to our mind is based on a misconception of law. We see no reason therefore to interfere in the present case. These appeals are liable to be dismissed, and are hereby dismissed" in its 36-page long judgment dated April 15, 2025. The 2022 Act refers to Maharashtra Local Authorities (Official Languages) Act, 2022. It was wrongly claimed that in terms of which, the use of Urdu language on the signboard of the Municipal Council is not permitted.

Supreme Court observed:"The High Court to our mind rightly concluded that the 2022 Act, on which the appellant placed significant reliance, does not prohibit the use of an additional language, which is Urdu in the present case, on the signboard of the Municipal Council building. The argument before the High Court in the second round of litigation by the present appellant was that Section 3(1) of the 2022 Act provides for Marathi to be the official language of all local authorities in the State, except for the purposes specified in sub-section (2) and the only exception which was provided was the use of English in the specified communications under sub-section (2). All the same, this argument is incorrect. There is no prohibition on using any other language, especially one included in the VIIIth Schedule of the Constitution of India. Sub-section (2) of Section 3 is an enabling provision to use English in situations where the communications, in which the subject matter of the communication cannot be properly conveyed in Marathi or in situations where the persons to whom such communications are addressed cannot understand Marathi. This makes it more than explicit that even the enactment recognizes that language essentially is a tool of communication; which, according to us, cannot be condemned, when this language is being used by a community or group. We have to emphasize that Marathi and Urdu occupy the same position under Schedule VIII of the Constitution of India."

The Court pointed out that "a fellow citizen" has  great pains to take this matter twice to the High Court and then twice again" before the Supreme Court. It underlined that "What the appellant thinks may also be the thinking of many of our fellow citizens. These need to be addressed."

Addressing such thinking, the Court observed:"Let our concepts be clear. Language is not religion. Language does not even represent religion. Language belongs to a community, to a region, to people; and not to a religion. Language is culture. Language is the yardstick to measure the civilizational march of a community and its people. So is the case of Urdu, which is the finest specimen of ganga-jamuni tahzeeb, or the Hindustani tahzeeb, which is the composite cultural ethos of the plains of northern and central India. But before language became a tool for learning, its earliest and primary purpose will always remain communication." 

The judgment recorded that India has more than hundred major languages. Then there are other languages known as dialects or ‘Mother Tongues’ which also run into hundreds. According to the 2001 Census, India had a total of 122 major languages including the 22 scheduled languages, and a total of 234 mother tongues. Urdu was the sixth most spoken scheduled language of India. In the 2011 Census, the number of mother tongues increased to 270. However, it is to be noted that this number was also arrived at by taking into consideration only those mother tongues which had more than ten thousand speakers. Thus, it would not be wrong to say that the actual number of mother tongues in India would run into thousands. Such is the immense linguistic diversity of India!

The Constitution of India though mentions twenty-two Indian languages in its VIIIth Schedule, which includes both Marathi and Urdu, and significantly, ‘English’ is not a language mentioned in the VIIIth Schedule as it is not an Indian language. Language is also representative of a culture. It is both sensitive and delicate. Article 351 emphasizes on the spread of Hindi language and to develop the language, inter alia, by assimilating the forms and style and expressions used in “Hindustani” and other languages of the VIIIth Schedule and wherever necessary or desirable, by drawing vocabulary, primarily from Sanskrit but also secondarily from other languages. Article empowers State legislatures to adopt Hindi or any other language in use in that State as the official language of that State. 

The Court observed:"The prejudice against Urdu stems from the misconception that Urdu is alien to India. This opinion, we are afraid, is incorrect as Urdu, like Marathi and Hindi, is an Indo-Aryan language. It is a language which was born in this land. Urdu developed and flourished in India due to the need for people belonging to different cultural milieus who wanted to exchange ideas and communicate amongst themselves. Over the centuries, it attained ever greater refinement and became the language of choice for many acclaimed poets."

It noted that the early debates in the Constituent Assembly indicated a compromise on this issue between the hardliners from both sides i.e. between supporters of Sanskritized Hindi and proponents of liberal mixture of Urdu and Hindi known as ‘Hindustani’. But then comes a strong rupture in the form of the partition of India, and amongst its several fallouts, one vital blow was given to Urdu and Hindustani both. 

In his book The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, Granville Austin wrote:

“…Partition killed Hindustani and endangered the position of English and the provincial languages in the Constitution. ‘If there had been no Partition, Hindustani would without doubt have been the national language,’ K. Santhanam believed, ‘but the anger against the Muslims turned against Urdu. Assembly members ‘felt that the Muslims having caused the division of the country, the whole issue of national language must be reviewed afresh’, said an article in The Hindustan Times. Having seen the dream of unity shattered by Partition, by the ‘treachery’ of the Urdu (Hindustani) speakers, the Hindi extremists became even more firmly committed to Hindi and to achieving national unity through it. Speakers of the provincial languages must learn Hindi and the regional languages must take second place, the Hindi-wallahs believed. And as to English, it should go as Urdu had gone. Were not both un-Indian?” The judgment referred to these observations of Austin. 

While it is a fact now that Hindustani is not the official language under the Constitution. Under Article 343 of the Constitution, Hindi is the official language, while the use of English was made permissible for official purposes for a period of fifteen years. But this does not mean that Hindustani and Urdu have become extinct. This was never the intention of the framers of the Constitution. 

Urdu language has come to be adopted by many States and Union Territories in India ad the second official language in exercise of powers conferred by Article 345 of the Constitution. The States which have Urdu as one of the official languages are Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal, while the Union Territories which follow this practice are Delhi and Jammu and Kashmir. 

Even from a Constitutional perspective, the use of language for official purposes is not according to any rigid formula. For example, Article 120 of the Constitution prescribes Hindi or English as the official language of Parliament, but the proviso to the said Article empowers the Presiding Officer of the House to allow a member to express themselves in their mother tongue, if they do not know Hindi or English. The same principle applies to State legislatures vide Article 210 of the Constitution.

The Court underscored that when anyone criticizes Urdu, in a way one criticizes Hindi because according to linguists and literary scholars, Urdu and Hindi are not two languages, but it is one language. Urdu is mainly written in Nastaliq and Hindi in Devnagri; but scripts do not make a language. What makes languages distinct is their syntax, their grammar and their phonology. Urdu and Hindi have broad similarities in all these counts.

Division Bench to hear case of maintainbility of writ against decision of a private trust which runs Siwan Engineering and Technical Institute (SETI)

In Tipu Sultan vs. State of Bihar & Ors. (2020), the Single Judge bench of Justice Ahsanuddin Amanullah concluded: "Having considered the matter, the Court finds substance in the objection of learned State counsel. Against any grievance of a decision of a private trust, the forum is the Civil Court of competent jurisdiction and not the writ Court under its extraordinary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. Once the Court finds that the petitioner has to go before another forum, there is no occasion to go into the merits. For the reasons aforesaid, the application stands disposed off with liberty to the petitioner to move before the appropriate forum, in accordance with law." The judgement was delivered on November 27, 2020. The other six respondents were: Aryabhatta Knowledge University, Patna, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), New Delhi, AICTE-Northern Regional Office,Kanpur, Islamia Educational & Social Welfare Trust, Siwan through its Secretary, Siwan Engineering and Technical Institute (SETI), Siwan and Principal, SETI.

The petitioner was a Assistant Professor, Siwan Engineering and Technical Institute (SETI) had approached the High Court for the quashing the order of March 1, 2020 whereby and where under SETI had illegally dismissed him from his service without any valid reason. He also sought quashing the order dated March 2, 2020 whereby and where under SETI had illegally deducted one day salary dated  February 12, 2020) without any valid reason. 

The counsel for the State raised a preliminary objection that the writ is not maintainable as it is against the decision of a private trust which runs the college. The judgement recorded that Md. Aslam Ansari, "the counsel for the petitioner could not meet the objection of learned counsel for the State and only submitted that there has been violation of principles of natural justice and due procedure of law has not been followed before passing of the order of dismissal."

The judgement clarified that "the Court has not expressed any opinion with regard to the merits of the matter and it shall be gone into by the competent forum before which the matter is brought for adjudication, in accordance with law, which shall decide the same expeditiously."


Saturday, April 19, 2025

Patna High Court refuses to interfere with blacklisting of M/S R.S Construction partnership firm

In M/S R.S Construction vs The Bihar Police Building Construction Corporation & Ors. (2025), the Division Bench comprising Acting Chief Justice Ashutosh Kumar and Justice Partha Sarthy observed: “Submitting of forged certificate leading to the registration of an FIR, even though the investigation with respect to the same is pending, is a serious matter which affects and jeopardizes the trust of the Corporation and it is the duty of every Corporation to warn the other counterparts regarding such persons.” The respondents were: Chairman -cum- Managing Director cum Appellate Authority, Bihar Police Building Construction Corporation, Patna, Chief Engineer cum Registering Authority, Bihar Police Building Construction Corporation, Patna and Superintending Engineer, Bihar Police Building Construction, Patna. The judgement concluded: "we do not wish to interfere with the decision of the respondents in blacklisting the petitioner/firm for three years."

The petitioner had approached the High Court against the order dated June 22, 2023 passed by the Chief Engineer-cum Registering Authority, Bihar Police Building Construction Corporation, Patna, blacklisting the registration of the petitioner/firm for an indefinite period, which vide corrigenda dated July 3, 2023 was altered to blacklisting for five years, to be effected from July 21, 2022, as also the order dated January 19, 2024 passed in appeal by the Chariman-cum-Managing Director of Bihar Police Building Construction Corporation, by which, the order passed by the Chief Engineer, respondent No. 3 was modified and the petitioner/firm was blacklisted for three years, but made it operative for other Departments of the Government also.

The review petition of the petitioner/firm filed on February 12, 2024 was also rejected. 

The Chief Engineer, Bihar Police Building Construction Corporation had invited tender for construction and electrification of Police Stations and Out-houses in the District of Gaya, apart from other works. The last date for uploading of the bids was extended from time to time.

One of clauses of the Notice for Inviting Tender (NIT), namely, Clause 35 was that the bid of only such firms would be considered who would upload their experience certificate of carrying out work of the Central Government/State Government/Public Sector Undertakings of similar nature along with proof thereof. 

The petitioner/firm along with eight others had submitted their bids for the work in question. The petitioner had submitted his performance/experience certificate along with the tender documents. The certificate was purportedly issued by the Managing Director of the Jharkhand State Tribal Cooperative Vegetable Marketing Federation, Ranchi. On verification of the documents, it was found that no such performance/experience certificate as was uploaded by the petitioner was ever issued from the office of VEGFED. This was communicated by the Managing Director of VEGFED vide his communication dated April 24, 2023. 

When the Corporation found that the certificate of experience enclosed by the petitioner/firm was a forged one, filed a criminal case, registered as Airport P.S. Case No. 106 of 2023, against all the partners of the petitioner/firm along with the power of attorney holder, viz., Deepak Kumar for offences punishable under Sections 467, 468, 471, 420, 120(B) and 511 of the Indian Penal Code.

The High Court's 13-page long judgment was authored by Justice Kumar on February 27, 2025 in a Civil Writ Jurisdiction Case which challenged the order passed by the Chief Engineer-cum-Registering Authority, Bihar Police Building Construction Corporation, Patna initially blacklisting the the registration of the petitioner/firm for an indefinite period, which was modified through a corrigendum to blacklist the firm for five years. 

The firm had also submitted an affidavit along with its bid, stating that all enclosed certificates were true, and that in case of detection of any false information, the competent authority could take legal action, including blacklisting and lodging of an FIR. 

Invoking the provisions of the Bihar Contractor Registration Rules, 2007, a show-cause notice was issued to the petitioner on 01.06.2023, asking the firm to explain within one week of the receipt of the notice as to why the registration be not suspended and the petitioner/firm be not blacklisted on the charge of forgery, cheating and uploading a forged experience certificate along with the bid documents. 

The High Court referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in Union of India vs.Tulsi Ram Patel : (1985) 3 SCC 398, which encompasses the complete amplitude of the principle of audi alteram partem, which reads as follows :-

“96. The rule of natural justice with which we are concerned in these appeals and writ petitions, namely, the audi alteram partem rule, in its fullest amplitude means that a person against whom an order to his prejudice may be passed should be informed of the allegations and charges against him, be given an opportunity of submitting his explanation thereto, have the right to know the evidence, both oral or documentary, by which the matter is proposed to be decided against him, and to inspect the documents which are relied upon for the purpose of being used against him examined in his presence and have the right to cross-examine them, and to lead his own evidence, both oral and documentary, in his defence.

The process of a fair hearing need not, however, conform to the judicial process in a court of law, because judicial adjudication of causes involves a number of technical rules of procedure and evidence which are unnecessary and not required for the purpose of a fair hearing within the meaning of audi alteram partem rule in a quasi-judicial or administrative inquiry.”

Notably, the petitioner/firm got an opportunity to explain the evidence against it and represent why it should not be blacklisted, in the appeal.

The judgment reads: "We, even at the cost of repetition, state that there is no statement on behalf of the petitioner/firm that the certificate uploaded by it is not forged."

The High Court also referred to Supreme Court's decisions in Erusian Equipment & Chemicals Ltd. Vs. State of W.B : (1975) 1 SCC 70; B.S.N. Joshi & Sons Ltd.Vs. Nair Coal Services Ltd. : (2006) 11 SCC 548; Kulja Industries Ltd. Vs. Chief General Manager, Western Telecom Project Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. & Ors. :(2014) 14 SCC 731; Patel Engineering Ltd. Vs. Union of India : (2012) 11 SCC 257 and Blue Dreamz Advertising Pvt. Ltd. & Anr. Vs. Kolkata Municipal Corporation & Ors. : 2024 SCC OnLine SC 1896. 

In a different case, the High Court had delivered its 57-page judgement wherein it quashed the BUIDCo order of blacklisting M/s EMS Infracon Private Limited on March 4, 2021 for one year as per the provisions of Bihar Contractor Registration Rules, 2007 for mentioning false facts in its tender documents. The rules were actually formed by the state road construction department with it’s commissioner-cum-secretary as an appellate authority. The court observed that blacklisting a contractor can have more serious consequences than dismissal of an employee for reason that his status may be restored with other consequential benefits if found illegal. Loss incurred by a firm because of the ineligibility after being blacklisted cannot be compensated. It is high time the state considered framing statutory rules in view of laws laid down by the Supreme court on the serious and grave consequences of blacklisting a firm.


 

Tuesday, April 15, 2025

Statement of Coalition for Nuclear Disarmament and Peace (CNDP) at the demise of Anil Chaudhury

STATEMENT BY CNDP ON THE PASSING AWAY OF ANIL CHAUDHURY

We at the Coalition for Nuclear Disarmament and Peace (CNDP) are deeply shocked and saddened at the demise of Anil Chaudhury, one of the oldest and most active members of our group, in Delhi this morning.

Anil, in the most unobtrusive way, since shortly after the inaugural conference in Delhi in 2000 ensured continued and uninterrupted functioning of the organisation by providing the central office in Delhi and also securing working hands to run the office. Similarly, he constantly provided the logistical support necessary for making the organisation work and also enabling it to bring out its organ: Peace Now. Then in the quarter century. that we have been in existence against all odds and with the nuclear cloud still hanging over us, Anil remained steadfast in his active involvement and commitment to the cause of a Nuclear free India, South Asia and indeed a nuclear free world.

For Anil, this commitment to denuclearization and democratization, was an integral part of his lifelong engagement with movements for social justice, and building peace from the grass roots to the national, regional and global levels. His deep involvement with both INSAF (Indian Social Action Forum) and to PEACE (Popular Education and Action Centre) were a testimony to this integrated vision of a world where Justice was a necessary precondition for Peace.

Anil was also someone who worked without fanfare and in relative anonymity. His was often the unseen but steady hand, mind and heart that enabled resolution of differences and conflict [and there were many!]; quietly brought together widely differing ideological and workaday positions; and without whose calm, benign presence – many of our groups might have gone our separate ways much earlier.

That we are still together and still sharing our vision of a just, peaceful and nuclear free tomorrow is largely because we had silent warriors like Anil holding us together like a secure and sound anchor. And we can never forget that quiet sense of humour – the smile and hug that would bring us together when it was so easy to divide – which were his endearing qualities and taught all of us the need to work together as a team.

We in CNDP, join all the other anti-nuclear platforms and progressive peoples’ movements in paying tribute to a remarkable human being and celebrating the life and contribution that he has made to the ongoing efforts to bring about a different more humane world.

Our deepest condolences to Ranjana, Abhinav, Arpita and other family members. Anil’s passing leaves a void which will be difficult to fill – both personally and for the organisations with which he was associated.

A Luta Continua –“The Struggle Continues”. And we look to the legacies left by Anil and many of our comrades who have passed on, to light the way forward as we continue our work for a Nuclear Free, Peaceful and Democratic world. 

Monday, April 14, 2025

Patna High Court's Division Bench sets aside judgement by its Single Judge in teacher recruitment case

In the State of Bihar & Ors. vs. Dhirendra Kumar & Ors, Letters Patent Appeal No.1030 of 2024, Patna High Court's Division bench of Acting Chief Justice Ashutosh Kumar and Justice Partha Sarthy set aside the Single Judge’s Judgment by Justice Nani Tagia by his 20-page long judgement dated April 8, 2025.

The Division Bench judgement recorded that the Commission categorically stated that amongst the writ-petitioners, nobody was in the category of candidates who qualify to be appointed on the basis of cut-off marks and cut-off date of birth.

Drawing on Supreme Court's decisions in Shankarsan Dash vs. Union of India: (1991) 3 SCC 47; R.S. Mittal vs. Union of India : 1995 Supp.(2) SCC 230 and Food Corporation of India & Ors. vs. Bhanu Lodh & Ors.: (2005) 3 SCC 618, the Division Bench observed: "There is no legal right to appointment but only of being considered, which is subject to bona fide action on the part of the State. An aspirant has no legal right and the superior Court, in exercise of its judicial power of review, would not ordinarily direct issuance of any writ in the absence of any pleading and proof of mala fide or arbitrariness on the part of the employer."

Drawing on Supreme Court's decision in Kashyap & Ors. vs. South East Central Railway & Ors.:(2019) 12 SCC 798, the Division Bench observed: "It is not incumbent upon the employer to fill all posts but discretion not to appoint, must be exercised judiciously. Courts normally would not interfere with the discretion not to fill up posts but exercise of such discretion should not be arbitrary, capricious or whimsical." It concluded: "For the afore-noted reasons, we are of the opinion that it is not a fit case where the impugned judgment could be sustained." 

Granting relief to 101 petitioners, in his 56-page long judgment dated July 18, 2024, Justice Tagia had directed the State of Bihar through the Chief Secretary Additional chief Secretary, Education Department, Secretary, Education Department, and Director, Secondary Education, Education Department, to identify the number of vacancies that had arisen due to non-appointment of the candidates recommended by the B.P.S.C. as primary teacher for class I-V pursuant to the Advertisement No. 26/2023 for want of requisite qualifications and convey it to the respondents, namely, Bihar Public Service Commission, Chairman, Bihar Public Service Commission and Joint Secretary -cum- Examination Controller, Bihar Public Service Commission On receipt of this information, the respondents were required to publish a supplementary result in order of merit from the selection held pursuant to Advertisement No. 26 of 2023, subject to the candidate(s) having secured the cut off marks and meets the cut off date of birth prescribed by the B.P.S.C.
The petitioners had filed the writ petition praying for issuance of an appropriate writ, order, direction in the nature of mandamus commanding the respondent Bihar Public Service Commission to publish thesupplementary / revised merit list for teachers in primary school for Class I-V in advertisement no. 26 of 2023 dated 30.05.2023, against the vacancies that could not be filled due to ineligibility/disqualification of provisionally successful candidates for non-passing of the CTET and D.El.Ed. Examination.
 
The petition sought a  direction in the nature of mandamus commanding the respondents to publish the result of the petitioners in the fresh supplementary list and call the petitioners for document verification and accordingly, allot respective schools after the publication of the supplementary/revised merit list for teachers inprimary school for Class I-V against advertisement no. 26 of 2023 dated 30.05.2023.
 
It prayed for direction in the nature of mandamus commanding the respondents to consequently, lower down the cut-off date of birth in all the categories in the supplementary/revised merit list for teachers in primary school for Class I-V against advertisement no. 26 of 2023 dated 30.05.2023, and publish the revised merit list accordingly.
 
It also sought a direction in the nature of mandamus commanding the respondents to not merge/include the leftover vacancy of advertisement no. 26/2023 dated 30.05.2023 with the future vacancy of teacher recruitment examination.
 
It prayed for direction in the nature of mandamus commanding the respondents to furnish the details of the vacancies accrued in primary teacher for class I to V due to the candidature rejection of successful candidates in want of CTET & D.El.Ed. certificates and for any other reason. The petition wanted the Court to declare that the respondent Bihar Public Service Commission is legally bound to publish the supplementary/revised merit list for teachers in primary school for Class I - V in advertisement no. 26 of 2023dated 30.05.2023 and thereafter, on the basis of the supplementary/revised merit list for teachers, the appointments are made.
 
The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) had published advertisement No.26/2023, dated 30.05.2022 under the signature of the Joint Secretary cum Examination Controller, BPSC inviting on-line
applications for 1,70,461 posts. These advertised posts included 79,943 posts of primary school teachers for class-1 to 5 for the subjects Urdu, Bangla and general subject. For general subject, the number of posts advertised was 67,066. The petitioners are concerned with 67,066/- posts advertised for primary school teachers for general subject. The advertisement, apart from providing eligibility criteria also provided that in case of the candidates obtaining same marks, age will be given precedence and in case, age will be the same, alphabetical order will be given priority. While advertisement provided 12.07.2023 as the last date of submission of on-line applications, B.P.S.C. published a corrigendum dated 22.06.2023, in which, it has been mentioned that the candidates, who had participated in CTET paper-I examination till 31.08.2023, will be allowed to participate in the examination. The petitioners, who possess all the requisite qualification, applied and had appeared in the written examination held on 24.08.2023 and 25.08.2023. The B.P.S.C. published result on 18.10.2023, wherein 62,653 candidates were declared successful for appointment as primary school teacher. At the time of publishing the result, the cut off marks and cut off date of birth for primary teacher for different categories, on the basis of written examination held on 24.05.2023 and 25.05.2023.
 
The Division Bench judgement has recorded that three kinds of vacancies were identified, viz., (i) the seats remaining vacant because of the Commission recommending lesser number of candidates which was carried forward in the next advertisement; (ii) the seats remaining vacant because of recommendation of same candidate on multiple posts for which a supplementary result of 467 candidates was published and (iii) the seats remaining vacant because of recommendation of ineligible candidates, which also was carried forward in the next advertisement. The vacancy in the third category could be calculated only after the conclusion of examination against next Advertisement No. 27/2023. Because of this, the supplementary result was published against seats which remained vacant due to recommendation of same candidate on multiple posts only.

The judgement reads: "we have taken into account the categorical statement of the Commission that no respondents/writ petitioners met the cut-off threshold of date of birth, though they had obtained marks equal to the selected candidates. We have also considered that the vacancies were carried forward and two consecutive selection process got activated."
 

Saturday, April 12, 2025

Unreasoned order is a nullity: Supreme Court

"23....A litigant has a legitimate expectation of knowing reasons for rejection of his claim/prayer. It is then alone, that a party would be in a position to challenge the order on appropriate grounds. Besides, this would be for the benefit of the higher or the appellate court. As arguments bring things hidden and obscure to the light of reasons, reasoned judgment where the law and factual matrix of the case is discussed, provides lucidity and foundation for conclusions or exercise of judicial discretion by the courts.

24. Reason is the very life of law. When the reason of a law once ceases, the law itself generally ceases (Wharton's Law Lexicon). Such is the significance of reasoning in any rule of law. Giving reasons furthers the cause of justice as well as avoids uncertainty. As a matter of fact it helps in the observance of law of precedent. Absence of reasons on the contrary essentially introduces an element of uncertainty, dissatisfaction and give entirely different dimensions to the questions of law raised before the higher/appellate courts. In our view, the court should provide its own grounds and reasons for rejecting claim/prayer of a party whether at the very threshold i.e. at admission stage or after regular hearing, howsoever concise they may be.

25. We would reiterate the principle that when reasons are announced and can be weighed, the public can have assurance that process of correction is in place and working. It is the requirement of law that correction process of judgments should not only appear to be implemented but also seem to have been properly implemented. Reasons for an order would ensure and enhance public confidence and would provide due satisfaction to the consumer of justice under our justice dispensation system. It may not be very correct in law to say, that there is a qualified duty imposed upon the courts to record reasons.

26. Our procedural law and the established practice, in fact, imposes unqualified obligation upon the courts to record reasons. There is hardly any statutory provision under the Income Tax Act or under the Constitution itself requiring recording of reasons in the judgments but it is no more res integra and stands unequivocally settled by different judgments of this Court holding that the courts and tribunals are required to pass reasoned judgments/orders. In fact, Order 14 Rule 2 read with Order 20 Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure requires that, the court should record findings on each issue and such findings which obviously should be reasoned would form part of the judgment, which in turn would be the basis for writing a decree of the court.

27. By practice adopted in all courts and by virtue of judge-made law, the concept of reasoned judgment has become an indispensable part of basic rule of law and, in fact, is a mandatory requirement of the procedural law. Clarity of thoughts leads to clarity of vision and proper reasoning is the foundation of a just and fair decision. In Alexander Machinery (Dudley) Ltd. [1974 ICR 120 (NIRC)] there are apt observations in this regard to say “failure to give reasons amounts to denial of justice”. Reasons are the real live links to the administration of justice. With respect we will contribute to this view. There is a rationale, logic and purpose behind a reasoned judgment. A reasoned judgment is primarily written to clarify own thoughts; communicate the reasons for the decision to the concerned and to provide and ensure that such reasons can be appropriately considered by the appellate/higher court. Absence of reasons thus would lead to frustrate the very object stated hereinabove.”

-Decision in Assistant Commissioner, Commercial Tax Department, Works Contract and Leasing, Kota vs. Shukla and Brothers (2010) 4 SCC 785 April 15, 2010 cited in State Project Director, UP Education for All Project Board & Ors. v. Saroj Maurya & Ors (2024) with approval in Supreme Court's judgement dated August 21, 2024

“Reasons are the backbone of the order and only from the reasons it can be deciphered as to what persuaded the authority to draw a particular conclusion."

- Justice G. S. Ahluwalia in Jairamdas Kukreja vs. State of Madhya Pradesh, 2024:MPHC-JBP:51262, October 14, 2024


Friday, April 11, 2025

Supreme Court declares the "ten Bills" as deemed to have been assented by Governor, sets deadlines for President and Governor

“Lord Denning summed up the gist of the principle of the rule of law when he said:To every subject in this land, no matter how powerful, I would use Thomas Fuller’s words over 300 years ago: ‘Be you never so high, the law is above you.’"

-Gary Slapper, How the Law Works,  p. 7

President and Governor do not hold the power to exercise ‘absolute veto’ on any bill. 

The Constitution is not a maze, but a labyrinth. Although both may semantically appear to be one and the same, yet there is a very fine but discernible difference between the two. The difference lies in the fact that in a maze one may lose their way within the multiple overlapping paths, with the possibility of each of them leading to a dead-end, however in a labyrinth one eventually finds the way and in the process also come out more enlightened. 

-Justice J. B. Pardiwala, Supreme Court of India, April 8, 2025

In The State of Tamil Nadu vs. The Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025), Supreme Court's division bench of Justices J. B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan delivered a 414 page long judgement on April 8, 2025 which reads:"We direct the Registry to send one copy each of this judgment to all the High Courts and the Principal Secretaries to the Governors of all States." It made it crystal clear that when Governor of any State reserves a bill for the consideration contrary to the aid and advice tendered to him by the State Council of Ministers, it shall be open to the State Government to assail such an action before the relevant High Court or the Supreme Court. 

Referring to conduct of the Governor of Tamil Nadu, the Supreme Court observed: "the Governor first withheld the ten bills under question and later despite the said Bills being repassed by the State legislature and presented before him again under the first proviso to Article 200, still reserved them for the consideration of the President. We have elaborated in detail that owing to the clear language in which the first proviso is couched, there would never arise, except in extraordinary situations, any occasion for the Governor to reserve a reconsidered bill for the consideration of the President. The said bills, in the absence of any message given by the Governor under the first proviso, were taken up for reconsideration by the State Assembly and passed in their original form, and presented to the Governor for his assent. Thus, undoubtedly, it was not open to the Governor to reserve the bills for the consideration of the President and he ought to have granted assent."

The judgement reads: "we have reached the following conclusion:

a. The reservation of the ten Bills which are the subject-matter of challenge in the present petition by the Governor for the consideration of the President on 28.11.2023 after their due reconsideration by the State legislature in terms of the first proviso to Article 200 being in contravention of the procedure prescribed under Article 200 as explained by us hereinabove is declared to be erroneous in law, non-est and thus, is hereby set-aside.

b. As a result of the above, any consequential steps that might have been taken by the President on these ten Bills is equally non-est and is hereby set-aside. 

c. Having regard to the unduly long period of time for which these Bills were kept pending by the Governor before the ultimate declaration of withholding of assent and in view of the scant respect shown by the Governor to the decision of this Court in State of Punjab (supra) and other extraneous considerations that appear to be writ large in the discharge of his functions, we are left with no other option but to exercise our inherent powers under Article 142 of the Constitution for the purpose of declaring these ten Bills as deemed to have been assented on the date when they were presented to the Governor after being reconsidered by the State legislature i.e., on 18.11.2023.

We are in no way undermining the office of the Governor. All we say is that the Governor must act with due deference to the settled conventions of parliamentary democracy; respecting the will of the people being expressed through the legislature as-well as the elected government responsible to the people. He must perform his role of a friend, philosopher and guide with dispassion, guided not by considerations of political expediency but by the sanctity of the constitutional oath he undertakes. In times of conflict, he must be the harbinger of consensus and resolution, lubricating the functioning of the State machinery by his sagacity, wisdom and not run it into a standstill. 

He must be the catalyst and not an inhibitor. All his actions must be impelled keeping in mind the dignity of the high constitutional office that he occupies. 

The Governor before he assumes office undertakes an oath to discharge his functions to the best of his ability in order to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the rule of law, along with avowing to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of the State. Therefore, it is imperative that all his actions be guided in true allegiance to his oath and that he faithfully executes his functions that he is entrusted with by and under the Constitution. There is a reason why a specific reference is made to the well-being of the people of the State in his oath, there is a reason why he is sworn in to pledge himself to the service of the same people; the Governor as the constitutional head of the State is reposed with the responsibility to accord primacy to the will and welfare of the people of the State and earnestly work in harmony with the State machinery, as his oath not only makes this mandate anything but clear but rather also demands it of the Governor owing to the intimate and delicate nature of the functions that he performs and the potency of the ramifications that could ensue or be unleashed upon the State. Due to this, the Governor must be conscious to not create roadblocks or chokehold the State Legislature in order to thwart and trade the will of the people for political edge. The members of the State Legislature having been elected by the people of the State as an outcome of the democratic expression are better attuned to ensure the wellbeing of the people of the State. Hence, any action contrary to the express choice of the people, in other words, the State legislature would be a renege of his constitutional oath.

Before we part with the matter, we find it apposite to observe that constitutional authorities occupying high offices must be guided by the values of the Constitution. These values that are so cherished by the people of India are a result of years of struggle and sacrifice of our forefathers.

When called upon to take decisions, such authorities must not give in to ephemeral political considerations but rather be guided by the spirit that underlies the Constitution. They must look within and reflect whether their actions are informed by their constitutional oath and if the course of action adopted by them furthers the ideals enshrined in the Constitution. If the authorities attempt to deliberately bypass the constitutional mandate, they are tinkering with the very ideals revered by its people upon which this country has been built.

The Court's judgement reads:"Considerable time has elapsed since these ten Bills were originally passed and presented to the Governor for assent. Two out of the ten Bills even date back to 2020. It is important to keep in mind that the tenure of the State legislature is of five years and the representatives are accountable to their electorate as regards the enactment of legislations addressing the issues faced by the electorate. At the end of every five years, the elected representatives have to go back to their electorate and provide a report card, based upon which the people, in whom the ultimate sovereignty rests, cast their votes. Bills, if kept pending for long despite their passage by the State legislature, militate against this very fundamental, essential to the sustenance of a representative democracy based on direct elections." 

The Court observed; "The conduct exhibited on part of the Governor, as it clearly appears from the events that have transpired even during the course of the present litigation, has been lacking in bonafides. There have been clear instances where the Governor has failed in showing due deference and respect to the judgments and directions of this Court. In such a situation, it is difficult for us to repose our trust and remand the matter to the Governor with a direction to dispose of the bills in accordance with the observations made by us in this judgment. Article 142 empowers this Court to do complete justice and in the facts of the present case, more particularly, in light of the fact that the option of granting assent to the repassed bills was the only constitutionally permissible option available with the Governor, we deem it absolutely necessary and appropriate to grant that very relief by exercising our extraordinary powers. No meaningful purpose would be served by keeping the bills, some of which have already been pending for incredulously long periods, pending for more time. Therefore, we deem the assent to have been granted." 

Ky further underlined: "Constitutional authorities are creatures of the Constitution and are bound by the limitations prescribed by it. No authority, in exercise of its powers, or to put it precisely, in discharge of its duties, must attempt to breach the constitutional firewall. The office of the Governor is no exception to this supreme command. Whenever there is an attempt by any authority to move beyond the bounds of the Constitution, this Court has been entrusted with the responsibility to act as the Sentinel on the qui vive and bring back the authority within the constitutionally permissible limits by exercising judicial review. We are not exercising our power under Article 142 in a casual manner, or without giving a thought to it. On the contrary, it is only after deepest of deliberations, and having reached at the firm conclusion that the actions of the Governor - first in exhibiting prolonged inaction over the bills; secondly in declaring a simplicter withholding of assent and returning the bills without a message; and thirdly in reserving the bills for the President in the second round - were all in clear violation of the procedure envisaged under the Constitution, that we have decided to declare the deeming of assent to the ten bills, considering it to be our constitutionally bounden duty."

The division bench wrote: "In our view, that is the only way to ensure that complete justice is done with the parties without any delay, and without possibility of any further delay due to any inaction on the part of the Governor, or lack of deference on his part to this judgment."

In conclusion, the judgement reads:"we answer the questions of law formulated by us as under: 

(I)In discharge of his functions under Article 200, the Governor has three options to choose from when a bill passed by the State legislature is presented to him –

i. First, to assent;

ii. Secondly, to withhold assent; or

iii. Thirdly, to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.

(II) The first proviso to Article 200 should be read in conjunction with the option of withholding of assent provided in the substantive part of Article 200. It is not an independent course of action and has to be mandatorily initiated by the Governor in cases where the option of withholding of assent is to be exercised. The decision of this Court in State of Punjab (supra) lays down the correct position of law in this regard. 

(III) The expression “the bill falls through unless the procedure under the first proviso is followed” as used in Valluri Basavaiah Chowdhary (supra) signifies that once the Governor declares withholding of assent and returns the bill to the House or Houses, the bill would lapse or fall through unless the House or Houses reconsider the bill in accordance with the suggestions made by the Governor in his message and present it to him after repassing. The expression “unless the procedure under the first proviso is followed” cannot be construed to mean that the Governor exercises discretion in setting the machinery prescribed under the first proviso in motion. Once the Governor exercises the option of withholding assent, he is under an obligation to follow the procedure prescribed in the first proviso “as soon as possible”.

(IV)The decision of this Court in State of Punjab (supra) cannot be said to be per incuriam. The observations made in the decision as regards attaching of the first proviso with the option of withholding of assent are supported by the observations made in Valluri Basavaiah Chowdhary (supra). 

(V) Neither the concept of ‘pocket veto’ nor that of ‘absolute veto’ finds place within the constitutional scheme and mechanism envisaged under Article 200 of the Constitution. The substantive part of Article 200 consciously uses the expression “shall declare” to signify that there is no scope of inaction, and whenever a bill is presented to the Governor, he is under a constitutional obligation to adopt one of the three courses of action available therein. Further, the expression “as soon as possible” in the first proviso permeates Article 200 with a sense of expediency and does not allow the Governor to sit on the bills and exercise pocket veto over them.

Similarly, by virtue of the first proviso being intrinsically and inextricably attached to the option of withholding of assent, there is no scope for the Governor to declare a simpliciter withholding of assent, meaning thereby that ‘absolute veto’ is also impermissible under Article 200.

(VI)It goes without saying that the scheme of Article 200 is characterized by the movement of the bill from one constitutional authority to another and that too with a sense of expediency. It is trite to say that Article 200 occupies an important role of giving the bills passed by the State legislature the authority of an Act. Without the procedure envisaged under Article 200, the bills remain mere pieces of paper, skeletons without any flesh or lifeblood flowing through their veins, mere documentation of the aspirations of the people without any possibility of bringing them to fruition.

(VII) As a general rule, it is not open for the Governor to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President once it is presented to him in the second round, after having been returned to the House previously as per the first proviso. The use of the expression “shall not withhold assent therefrom” appearing in the first proviso places a clear embargo on the Governor and is a clear enunciation of the requirement that the Governor must assent to a bill which is presented to him after complying with the procedure laid down in the first proviso. The only exception to this general rule is when the bill presented in the second round is materially different from the one presented to the Governor in the first instance, as discussed in paragraph 204 of this judgment. In such a scenario, it would be open for the Governor to choose from the three options provided in the substantive part of Article 200.

(VIII) In the facts of the present case, the reservation by the Governor of the ten Bills for the consideration of the President in the second round was illegal, erroneous in law and is thus liable to be set aside. 

As a result, any subsequent action taken upon the said Bills by the President also does not survive and is thus set aside. 

(IX)The Bills, having been pending with the Governor for an unduly long period of time, and the Governor having acted with clear lack of bona fides in reserving the Bills for the consideration of the President, immediately after the pronouncement of the decision of this Court in State of Punjab (supra), are deemed to have been assented to by the Governor on the date when they were presented to him after being reconsidered. 

(X)There is no expressly specified time-limit for the discharge of the functions by the Governor under Article 200 of the Constitution. 

Despite there being no prescribed time-limit, Article 200 cannot be read in a manner which allows the Governor to not take action upon bills which are presented to him for assent and thereby delay and essentially roadblock the law-making machinery in the State.

(XI)The use of the expression “as soon as possible” in the first proviso makes it clear that the Constitution infuses a sense of urgency upon the Governor and expects him to act with expediency if he decides to declare the withholding of assent. 

(XII) The settled position of law is that where no time-limit for the exercise of a power is prescribed, the same must be exercised in a reasonable time period. Guided by the decisions of this Court in A.G. Perarivalan (supra) and Keisham (supra), we find that it is no more res-integra that the courts are well-empowered to prescribe a time-limit for the discharge of any function or exercise of any power which, by its very nature, demands expediency.

(XIII) Prescription of a general time-limit by this Court, within which the ordinary exercise of power by the Governor under Article 200 must take place, is not the same thing as amending the text of the Constitution to read in a time-limit which would fundamentally change the procedure and mechanism stipulated by Article 200. Prescription of such time-limits within the scheme of Article 200 is with a view to lay down a determinable judicial standard for ascertaining the reasonable exercise of such power and to curtail any arbitrary inaction. This Court while prescribing a time-limit for the exercise of power, is guided by the inherent expedient nature of the procedure prescribed under Article 200.

(XIV) Keeping in mind the constitutional significance of Article 200 and the role it plays in the federal polity of the country, the following timelines are being prescribed. Failure to comply with these timelines would make the inaction of the Governors subject to judicial review by the courts:

(i) In case of either withholding of assent or reservation of the bill for the consideration of the President, upon the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers, the Governor is expected to take such an action forthwith, subject to a maximum period of one-month;

(ii) In case of withholding of assent contrary to the advice of the State Council of Ministers, the Governor must return the bill together with a message within a maximum period of three months;

(iii) In case of reservation of bills for the consideration of the President contrary to the advice of the State Council ofML Ministers, the Governor shall make such reservation within a maximum period of three months;

(iv) In case of presentation of a bill after reconsideration in accordance with the first proviso, the Governor must grant assent forthwith, subject to a maximum period of one-month.

(XV)As the general rule, the Governor in exercise of his functions Under Article 200 is required to abide by the aid and advice tendered by the Council of Ministers. The only exceptions to this rule can be traced to the second proviso to Article 200 and Article 163(1) of the Constitution. Thus, only in instances where the Governor is by or under the Constitution required to act in his discretion, would he be justified in exercising his powers under Article 200 contrary to the advice of the Council of Ministers. Further, any exercise of discretion by the Governor in exercise of his powers under Article 200 is amenable to judicial review.

(XVI) We declare the view taken in B.K. Pavitra (supra) to be per incuriam to the extent of the following two observations made therein – First, that the Constitution confers discretion upon the Governor insofar as the reservation of bills for the consideration of the President is concerned and; Secondly, that the exercise of discretion by the Governor under Article 200 is beyond judicial scrutiny.

The removal of the expression “in his discretion” from Section 75 of the GoI Act, 1935 when it was being adapted as Article 200 of the Constitution clearly indicates that any discretion which was available to the Governor under the GoI Act, 1935 in respect of reservation of bills became unavailable with the commencement of the Constitution.

The decision of B.K. Pavitra (supra) is not in consonance with the observations made by the larger bench decision of this Court in Samsher Singh (supra). The majority opinion in Samsher Singh (supra) in paragraph 28 observed that “Governor is the constitutional or formal head of the State and he exercises all his powers and functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers save in spheres where the Governor is required by or under the Constitution to exercise his functions in his discretion” At the cost of repetition, we again reiterate “and he exercises all his powers and functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers”.

The decision in Samsher Singh (supra) illustrated certain provisions of the Constitution which expressly required the Governor to exercise his powers in his discretion. The second proviso to Article 200 was one such illustration. Thus, it is amply clear from the dictum in Samsher Singh (supra) that the Seven Judge Bench, after taking into consideration the scheme of Article 200, observed that the second proviso to Article 200 was the only instance where the Governor had been entrusted with the power to act in his own discretion. Subsequent Constitution Bench decisions in M.P. Special Police (supra) and Nabam Rebia (supra) clarified that besides the instances where the Governor has been expressly conferred with discretionary powers, there may still be certain exceptional circumstances wherein it would be legitimate for him to act in his own discretion as indicated by us in paragraph 300.

However, the general rule remains that the Governor acts upon the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers.

Under Article 200 of the Constitution, the Governor does not possess any discretion in the exercise of his functions and has to mandatorily abide by the advice tendered to him by the Council of Ministers. The only exceptions to this general rule are as follows:

(i) Where the bill is of a description as provided under the second proviso to Article 200;

(ii) Where the bill is of a nature covered by Articles 31A, 31C, 254(2), 288(2), 360(4)(a)(ii) etc. wherein assent of the President is a condition precedent before the bill can take effect as law; 

(iii) Where the bill is of a nature that if allowed to take effect then it would undermine the Constitution by placing the fundamental principles of a representative democracy in peril. 

The observations made in B.K. Pavitra (supra) that “a discretion is conferred upon the Governor to follow one of the courses of action enunciated in the substantive part of Article 200”do not take into consideration the decision of Samsher Singh (supra) and is for this reason per incuriam. It failed to consider that Article 200 which had been duly considered by Samsher Singh (supra) was found to contain only one instance where the exercise of discretion was expressly provided, that being the second proviso thereto. Besides this, as already aforestated, it failed to notice the removal of the expression “in his discretion” from Section 75 of the GoI Act, 1935 which ultimately culminated into Article 200.

(XVII) Under Article 201, the occasion for the reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President by the Governor may arise where a constitutional provision makes the assent of the President to be a condition precedent to a State legislation becoming enforceable or for the purpose of securing some immunity to the State legislation. 

Such a requirement can be found in Articles 31A, 31C, 254(2), 288(2), 360(4)(a)(ii) etc. The second proviso to Article 200 also makes reservation for the consideration of the President mandatory.

As we have also discussed, there may be certain other situations where by peril to fundamental principles of representative democracy, the Governor may, in exercise of his discretion, reserve a bill for the consideration of the President.

(XVIII) There is no ‘pocket veto’ or ‘absolute veto’ available to the President in discharge of his functions under Article 201. The use of the expression “shall declare” makes it mandatory for the President to make a choice between the two options available under the substantive part of Article 201, that is, to either grant assent or to withhold assent to a bill. The constitutional scheme does not, in any manner, provide that a constitutional authority can exercise its powers under the Constitution arbitrarily. This necessarily implies that the withholding of assent under Article 201 is to be accompanied by the furnishing of reasons for such withholding. We cannot say for a moment that the President would be allowed to not exercise the proviso to Article 201 and not communicate reasons for the withholding of assent to the State legislature, as doing so would make the very inclusion of the proviso in Article 200 redundant. Thus, the proviso to Article 201 could be said to attach with the option of withholding of assent.

(XIX) The position of law is settled that even where no time-limit is prescribed for the exercise of any power under a statute, it should be exercised within a reasonable time. The exercise of powers by the President under Article 201 cannot be said to be immune to this heneral principle of law. Keeping in mind the expedient nature of the provision and having regard to the reports of Sarkaria and Puncchi Commissions, as well as the Memorandum dated 04.02.2016 issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs, we prescribe that the President is required to take a decision on the bills reserved for his consideration by the Governor within a period of three months from the date on which such reference is received. In case of any delay beyond this period, appropriate reasons would have to be recorded and conveyed to the concerned State.

(XX)Whenever, in exercise of the powers under Article 200 of the Constitution, a bill is reserved for the consideration of the President on grounds of patent unconstitutionality that are of such a nature so as to cause peril to the principles of representative democracy, the President, must be guided by the fact that it is the constitutional courts which have been entrusted with the responsibility of

adjudicating upon the questions of constitutionality and legality of

an executive or legislative action. Therefore, as a measure of

prudence, the President ought to make a reference to this Court in

exercise of his powers under Article 143 of the Constitution.

(XXI) Judicial review and justiciability are not synonymous concepts. The ower of judicial review in a written constitution is implicit. Unless expressly excluded by a provision of the Constitution, the power of judicial review is available in respect of exercise of powers under any of the provisions of the Constitution. On the other hand, justiciability relates to a particular field falling within the purview of the power of judicial review.

(XXII) The determining factor in deciding whether a power would be subject to judicial review is the subject-matter of such power and not its source. Indra Sawhney (supra) observed that the yardstick of subjecting an act or a decision to judicial review is not whether it is a legislative act or an executive decision on a policy matter but whether it violates any constitutional guarantee or the rights under Part III of the Constitution. The Governor, wherever he acts in his discretion under the Constitution, does so by virtue of his position as the constitutional and formal head of the State. It has been held in a catena of decisions that exercise of any power under the Constitution must conform to the limits set by the Constitution itself. Article 200 is no exception to this general rule.

(XXIII) In light of this, the observations made by this Court in Hoechst (supra) that the assent of the President is non-justiciable, cannot be stretched to mean that as a general rule, the exercise of powers by the Governor under Article 200 in his discretion would also be immune from judicial review. While grant of assent by the Governor or the President, being acts which are generally taken upon the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, may not be justiciable, the withholding of assent or reservation of bills for the consideration of the President by the Governor in exercise of his discretion which is subject to the limits defined by the Constitution, would be justiciable on the touchstone of judicially determinable standards.

(XXIV) We summarise our findings on judicial review of the exercise of power by the Governor under Article 200 and the exercise of power by the President under Article 201 as follows:

a. . Where the Governor reserves a bill for the consideration of the President in his own discretion and contrary to the aid and advice tendered to him by the State Council of Ministers, it shall be open to the State Government to assail such an action before the appropriate High Court or this Court. Such a challenge can broadly be made on the following grounds: 

(i)Where the reservation is on the ground that the bill is of a description falling under the Second Proviso to Article 200 of the Constitution, it may be assailed on the ground that the bill or any provision thereof does not so derogate from the powers of the High Court so as to endanger the position which that court is designed by the Constitution to fill. The Governor while reserving a bill on this count shall be expected to provide clear reasons and also point to the specific provision(s) of the bill which, in his opinion, attract the Second Proviso. 

This question being purely of a legal nature would be completely justiciable and the competent court would be, after a proper adjudication, fully authorized to approve or disapprove of such reservation by the Governor. If such a challenge finds favour with the competent court, then, subject to any other considerations, it would be a fit case for the issuance of a writ in the nature of mandamus to the Governor for appropriate action. If, however, the challenge should fail then the mechanism envisaged under Article 201 of the Constitution will spring into action.

(ii)Where the reservation is on account of the bill attracting any provision of the Constitution wherein the assent of the President is a condition precedent for the proper enactment and enforceability of such a bill as a law (such as under Article 364A2) or for the purpose of securing any immunity (such as under Article 31A) or overcoming any repugnancy that may exist qua a Central Legislation (under Article 254(2)), then the Governor is expected to make a specific and clear reference to the President properly indicating the reasons for such reservation and inviting his attention as described in Kaiser-I-Hind (supra). Such a reservation can be assailed by the State Government, if the reference made by the Governor either fails to indicate the reasons for such reservation as discussed above or that the reasons indicated are wholly irrelevant, mala-fide, arbitrary, unnecessary or motivated by extraneous considerations. Then such a reservation would be liable to be set aside. This question being purely of a legal nature would be completely justiciable and the competent court would be after a proper adjudication fully authorized to approve or disapprove of such reservation by the Governor. If such a challenge finds favour with the competent court, then, subject to any other considerations, it would be fit case for issuance of a writ in the nature of mandamus to the Governor for appropriate action. If however, the challenge should fail then the mechanism envisaged under Article 201 of the Constitution will spring into action.

(iii)Where the reservation of a bill by the Governor for the consideration of the President is on the grounds of peril to democracy or democratic principles or on other exceptional grounds as mentioned in M.P. Special Police (supra) and Nabam Rebia (supra) then the Governor would be expected to make a specific and clear reference to the President properly indicating the reasons for entertaining such a belief by pinpointing the specific provisions in this regard and the consequent effect that may ensue if such a bill were to be allowed to become a law. The Governor while making such a reference should also indicate his subjective satisfaction as to why the aforesaid consequences that may ensue cannot be possibly curtailed or contained by taking recourse to the constitutional courts of the country. It shall be open to the State Government to challenge such a reservation on the ground of failure on part of the Governor to furnish the necessary reasons as discussed aforesaid or that the reasons indicated are wholly irrelevant, mala-fide, arbitrary, unnecessary or motivated by extraneous considerations. This being a question completely capable of being determined by the constitutional courts, would be fully justiciable.

(iv)Reservation of a bill on grounds other than the ones mentioned above, such as personal dissatisfaction of the Governor, political expediency or any other extraneous or irrelevant considerations is strictly impermissible by the Constitution and would be liable to be set-aside forthwith on that ground alone. This will also encompass reservation of a bill by the Governor after having already exercised the option of withholding of assent in terms of Article 200 except in such exceptional circumstance as mentioned in paragraph 204 of this judgment.

(v)Where the Governor exhibits inaction in making a decision when a bill is presented to him for assent under Article 200 and such inaction exceeds the time-limit as has been prescribed by us in paragraph 250 of this judgment then it shall be open to the State Government to seek a writ of mandamus from a competent court against the Governor directing expeditious decision on the concerned bill as is the mandate of the Constitution, however, it is clarified that the Governor may successfully resist such a challenge on providing sufficient explanation for the delay caused.

b. Where the Governor reserves a bill for the consideration of the President and the President in turn withholds assent thereto then, it shall be open to the State Government to assail such an action before this Court. Such a challenge can broadly be made on the following grounds: 

i)Where a State bill has been reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President on the ground that assent of the President is required for the purpose of making the bill enforceable or securing some immunity therefore, then in such cases the withholding of assent by the President would be justiciable to the limited extent of exercise of such power in an arbitrary or malafide manner. Owing to the political nature of the assent of the President in these categories of bills, the courts would impose a self-restraint. 

(ii)Where a State bill has been reserved by the Governor, in his discretion, for the consideration of the President on the ground that the bill appears to be patently unconstitutional for placing the principles of representative democracy in peril, the withholding of assent by the President would, in ordinary circumstances, involve purely legal and constitutional questions and therefore be justiciable without any impediments imposed by the doctrine of political thicket. In such cases, it would be prudent for the President to obtain the advisory opinion of this Court by way of a reference under Article 143 and act in accordance with the same to dispel any apprehensions of bias, arbitrariness or mala fides.

(iii)Where the President exhibits inaction in making a decision when a bill is presented to him for assent under Article 201 and such inaction exceeds the time-limit as has been prescribed by us in paragraph 391 of this judgment then it shall be open to the State Government to seek a writ of mandamus from this Court.

The judgement recalled Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s concluding speech in the Constituent Assembly, which is as relevant today as it was in 1949 –“However good a Constitution may be, it is sure to turn out bad because those who are called to work it, happen to be a bad lot. However bad a Constitution may be, it may turn out to be good if those who are called to work it, happen to be a good lot”. The judgement was authored by Justice Pardiwala. 

The Court observed:"We find ourselves in disagreement with the view taken in B.K. Pavitra (supra) that the Constitution confers a discretion upon the Governor insofar as the reservation of bills for the consideration of the President is concerned. We say so because the removal of the expression “in his discretion” from Section 75 of the GoI Act, 1935 when it was being adapted as Article 200 of the Constitution, clearly indicates that any discretion which was available to the Governor under the GoI Act, 1935 in respect of reservation of bills became unavailable with the commencement of the Constitution. The views expressed by the members of the Constituent Assembly, which are recorded in the debates that took place on Article 175 of the Draft Constitution, also  indicate the same. We are also of the view that the same is also in alignment with the fundamental tenets of responsible government in a parliamentary democracy. The only exception to the general principle of the Governor adhering to the aid and advice tendered by the Council of Ministers can be traced to Article 163(1) and the second proviso to Article 200."

It pointed out that "the Court in B.K. Pavitra (supra) failed to take into consideration the larger Bench decisions in Samsher Singh (supra) and M.P. Special Police (supra). As we have discussed above, paragraphs 54 to 56 of the decision in Samsher Singh (supra) make it clear beyond any doubt that there is no express requirement under the Constitution for the exercise of discretion by the Governor in discharge of his functions under Article 200, except to the limited extent of the second proviso where the expression “in his opinion” is employed for the Governor. This is also apparent from the conscious decision of the Constituent Assembly in removing the expression “in his discretion” while enacting Article 200. Thus, the only express stipulation where the Governor may exercise discretion for reservation of bills is in the second proviso to Article 200. Even when looked at from the perspective of necessary implication, the discretion of the Governor in reserving the bills for the consideration of the President can be said to be present only in those cases where the Constitution has envisaged a mandatory approval of the Government, before the law can become enforceable in the State." The judgment asserts that Justice D. Y. Chandrachud's observations in B.K. Pavitra v. Union of India (2019) 6 SCC 129 are per incuriam.

The ones who are complaining about lengthy judgement without reading the judgement may recall what Jacques Lacan, the French psychoanalyst and psychiatrist wrote: “The world of words creates the world of things.” 



Patna High Court upholds validity of validity of Rule 6 (1) of Bihar Pharmacists Cadre Rules, 2014 under the Pharmacy Act of 1948

To think that thinking persons should think so wrongly! "All persons make mistakes, but a good person yields when he/she knows his/her course is wrong, and repairs the evil. The only crime is pride."

Sophocles (5th century BCE), one of the three great tragedians of ancient Greece, along with Aeschylus and Euripides in Antigone

In Pharmacy Council of India vs. State of Bihar & Ors. (2025), Acting Chief Justice Ashutosh Kumar and Justice Partha Sarthy delivered a 72-page long judgement disposed all the writ petitions were disposed of without relief to the petitioners.  

The judgement was authored by Justice Kumar. He concluded: "No doubt, graduate and post-graduate degrees in Pharmacy are higher qualification but when the essential/minimum qualification of Diploma in Pharmacy has been fixed in the cadre rules, it cannot be tinkered with only on the ground of the same not being wise or sound or as suggested, arbitrary. The prescriptions of course study for Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act of 1948 and the Regulations of 2015, referred to above, are only with respect to the eligibility of such graduates, post-graduates and diplomates to practice Pharmacy, subject to their registration with the respective Pharmacy Councils of States but that does not pertain to the matters of recruitment, which are in the exclusive domain of the appropriate Governments."  

The petitioners had challenged the validity of Rule 6 (1) of Bihar Pharmacists Cadre Rules, 2014 (as amended) (impugned Rules of 2014), in which, it has been stipulated that for appointment by direct recruitment to the basic category posts of Pharmacists, minimum educational qualification shall be Intermediate/10+2 (Science) and passing in all parts (Part-I, II & III) of Diploma in Pharmacy from the Institutions recognized by the Government and a certificate to that effect would be necessary, as being violative of and repugnant to the Pharmacy Practice Regulations, 2015 (Regulations of 2015) framed by the Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) under Section 10 of the Pharmacy Act, 1948, which, inter alia, provides that the basic qualification of Diploma in Pharmacy and Bachelor Degree in Pharmacy would be necessary for the profession of Pharmacists. Rule 6(1) of the impugned Rules of 2014 was challenged by the petitioners for being arbitrary and irrational. 

They had prayed also for declaration of the note provided in Rule 4 of the Bihar Pharmacist Cadre (Amendment) Rules, 2024 stipulating that B. Pharma and M. Pharma certificate holders would also be eligible for applying for the posts of Pharmacists, provided they possess the qualification of Diploma in Pharmacy. 

The respondents were:The State of Bihar through the Chief Secretary, Government of Bihar, Additional Chief Secretary, Health Department, Union of India, through Secretary, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Pharmacy Council of India, Registrar, Pharmacy Council of India, Bihar Technical Service Commission through its Secretary and Others.