Friday, March 27, 2026

Supreme Court allows appeal, sets aside order by Jutice Dr. Anshuman in a kidnapping of minor case

In Nikhil Kumar @ Paras vs. The State of Bihar & Anr. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices B.V. Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan passed a 5-page long order dated March 25, 2026, wherein, it allowed appeal, setting aside 2-page long order by Justice Dr. Anshuman of the Patna High Court dated August 13, 2025. The order concluded:"Considering the circumstances on record, in our view, the appellant is entitled to the relief claimed under Section 482 of BNSS. We, therefore, allow this appeal and set aside the order passed by the High Court dated 13.08.2025. We direct that in the event of arrest of the appellant, the Arresting Officer shall release the appellant on bail, subject to furnishing cash security in the sum of Rs.25,000/-(Rupees Twenty-Five Thousand only) with two like sureties."

An FIR was lodged against two named accused persons, including the appellant, with the allegation that they kidnapped the daughter of the informant. The counsel for the petitioner submitted that the alleged victim was recovered and has given her statement under Section 161 of the Cr.P.C. before the police and under Section 164 of the Cr.P.C. before the Magistrate. In her statement under Section 161 of the Cr.P.C., she did not make any allegation against anyone, rather, she disclosed that she had left the house of her own will. He also submitted that the criminal antecedent of the petitioner was clean.

Justice Dr. Anshuman had observed: "6. In the present facts and circumstances of the case, and considering that the victim is a minor, this Court is not inclined to grant anticipatory bail to the petitioner. Accordingly, the prayer for anticipatory bail is hereby rejected." 

Apprehending arrest in connection with crime registered pursuant to FIR of 2024 dated June 3, 2024 lodged with P.S. Wajirganj, District Gaya in respect of the offence punishable under Section 366A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, the appellant preferred an application before the High Court seeking anticipatory bail in terms of Section 482 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. The application for anticipatory bail was rejected by the High Court vide the impugned order, the instant appeal was preferred. 

Section 366 A of IPC deals with procuration of minor girl. It reads: "Whoever, by any means whatsoever, induces any minor girl under the age of eighteen years to go from any place or to do any act with intent that such girl may be, or knowing that it is likely that she will be, forced or seduced to illicit intercourse with another person shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine." Punishment procuration of minor girl 10 years and fine. It cognizable and non-Bailable which is tried by Court of Session.

The counsel for the appellant submitted that the offences alleged against him are wholly false inasmuch as there was a consensual relationship between the appellant and the so-called victim who was about 17/18 years of age at the relevant point of time; that in fact there was a marriage between the parties and subsequently owing to a marital dispute a criminal colour has been given to the entire dispute. He submitted that this Court by interim order dated December 3, 2025 had granted protection to the appellant herein subject to his cooperation in the investigation.; that the appellant was cooperating with the investigation. In the circumstances, the interim order may be made absolute. 

Supreme Court's prder is apparently based on the fact that the alleged victim  had gone with the petitioner of her own will. She had also stated that she married the petitioner and that they developed a physical relationship on 1–2 occasions.


Supreme Court sets aside onerous condition imposed by Justice Rajesh Kumar Verma while granting anticipatory bail

In Vinay Kumar Yadav vs. The State of Bihar & Anr. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices M.M. Sundresh and N. K Singh passed a 4-page long order dated March 25, 2026, wherein it concluded: "5. The appeal lies in a narrow compass. While granting anticipatory bail to the appellant, a condition has been imposed by the High Court vide the impugned order to the effect that the appellant shall pay a sum of Rs.2,60,000/- to the informant. Alleging the said condition to be onerous as the High Court has not considered it in the proper prospective, the present appeal is filed. 6. We find force in the submissions made by the learned counsel appearing for the appellant. When the condition imposed while granting anticipatory bail is onerous, the same cannot be sustained in the eye of law, especially, when we are dealing with a case pertaining to the liberty of a person. 7. In such view of the matter, the impugned condition with respect to the payment of a sum of Rs.2,60,000/- stands set aside and the appeal is allowed, accordingly." The Court allowed the appeal after condoning the delay in case from Siwan pertaining to offences under Sections 420, 467, 468, 471 and 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860..

In his 5-page long order dated Jnaury 23, 2025, Justice Rajesh Kumar Verma had concluded:"6. Considering the aforesaid facts and petitioner has clean antecedent, let the petitioner, above named, in the event of his arrest or surrender before the court below within a period of thirty days from the date of receipt of the order, be released on bail on furnishing bail bond of Rs.10,000 (Ten Thousand) with two sureties of the like amount each to the satisfaction of learned Chief Judicial Magistrate, Siwan in connection with Mairwa P.S. Case No.03 of 2023, subject to the conditions as laid down under Section 438(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure/Section 482(2) of BNSS,2023 and with other following conditions:-(I) At the time of furnishing bail bond, the petitioner shall deposit Rs.1,50,000/-(Rs.One Lac Fifty Thousand) by way of demand draft in favour of the informant and the learned Trial Court is directed to hand over the said demand  draft to the informant or his representative and petitioner shall pay rest amount of Rs.1,10,000/- (Rs. One Lac Ten Thousand) to the informant in the month of February, 2025. If the petitioner fails to pay the rest amount within the aforesaid period, the informant shall be at liberty to move before the learned court below for cancellation of bail bond of the petitioner. (II) Petitioner shall co-operate in the trial and shall be properly represented on each and every date fixed by the Court and shall remain physically present as directed by the Court and on his/her absence on two consecutive dates without sufficient reason, his/her bail bond shall be cancelled by the Court below. (III) If the petitioner tampers with the evidence or the witnesses, in that case, the prosecution will be at liberty to move for cancellation of bail. (IV) And, further condition that the court below shall verify the criminal antecedent of the petitioner and in case at any stage, it is found that the petitioner has concealed his/her criminal antecedent, the court below shall take step for cancellation of bail bond of the petitioner. However, the acceptance of bail bonds in terms of the above-mentioned order shall not be delayed for purpose of or in the name of verification." 

Now Supreme Court has set aside the onerous condition imposed by Justice Verma.    

Supreme Court waives cost imposed by Patna High Court's Division Bench in a matter of service termination

In Shashi Prakash vs. The State of Bihar through the Principal Secretary, Animal Husbandry Department, Government of Bihar & Ors. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justice  anjay Karol and Augustine George Masih passed a 2-page long order dated March 25, 2026. The petitioner had challenged the order dated January 8, 2024 in Civil Writ Jurisdiction Case No.12099/2023 by Justice Mohit K. Shah and 2-page long order dated September 17, 2025 in Civil Writ Jurisdiction Case No.229/2024 passed by Justice P. B. Bajanthri and Alok Kumar Sinha of the Patna High Court. Supreme Court's order reads: "4. Petitioner can take recourse to such remedies as are otherwise available in accordance with law and in terms of the liberty already granted by the learned Single Judge vide impugned order dated 08.01.2024. Insofar as the cost imposed by the learned Division Bench is concerned, the same is waived off. If the amount is already deposited, the same shall be refunded forthwith to the petitioner." 

In the order authored by Justice Bajanthri had observed: "....it is crystal clear that at the behest of learned counsel for the petitioner, both the litigations have been withdrawn. Upon that the appellant has assailed the aforementioned orders in the present LPA. 3. Thus the LPA is not maintainable, accordingly, the present LPA stands dismissed with cost of Rs. 5,000/-. Cost shall be remitted in the Lawyers’ Association Welfare Benevolent Fund, Indian Bank...."

Prior to this, in his order as Single Judge, Justice Shah had recorded that in the  writ petition, the petitioner had prayed for issuance of a writ in nature of Certiorari to quash the order dated 31.05.1997 as contained in Memo No. 3177 dated 02.06.1997, passed by Respondent No. 2 communicated to the Respondent No. 4 vide Memo No. 442 dated 24.06.1997, by the Respondents No. 3 for its communicated the petitioner by the Respondent No. 3. Thereafter Memo No. 533 dated 24.06.1996 and Memo No. 7684 dated 29.08.1995 by which the service of the petitioner has been terminated on entirely non est ground. As post has been abolished issued by Respondent No. 3 and petitioner was relieved form his service and for issuance of a consequential writ in the nature of Mandamus commanding and directing the respondents to allow the petitioner to work on the his post at Gaya and not to interfere with them duties and also to make payment of his salary regularly with entire dues amount and pass order or orders, writ or writs and direction or directions.” Justice Shah had also recorded that the counsel for the petitioner sought not to press the present writ petition, however, seeks liberty on behalf of the petitioner to avail such other alternative remedies as are otherwise available under the law, for redressal of the aforesaid grievances. Liberty, so sought, is granted. 3. The writ petition stands dismissed as not pressed." 

The other three respondents were:Director, Animal Husbandry Department, Regional Animal Husbandry Department,through the Regional Animal Husbandry Director Magadh Range, Area, Gaya and District Animal Husbandry Department,through the District Animal Husbandry Officer Magadh Range, Gaya. 

 


Thursday, March 26, 2026

Supreme Court reverses order by Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh, grants bail in a rape-murder case

In Dheeraj Jha @ Dheeraj Kumar @ Raghav vs. The State of Bihar, Supreme Court's Division Bench of M.M. Sundresh and N.K Singh passed a 5-page long order dated March 25, 2026 setting aside the order by Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh of Patna High Court. The Supreme Court noted that upon completion of investigation the appellant was chargesheeted only for the offence punishable under Section 306 of the IPC and not other offences. The appellant was the superior of the deceased. The counsel for the appellant submitted that the ingredients of the offence under Section 306 of the IPC were not made out and in any case, the deceased committed suicide pursuant to an alleged extra-marital affair with the appellant. Considering the aforesaid submissions made, we are inclined to grant bail to the appellant, particularly, by taking note of the period of incarceration already undergone by the appellant and the facts governing the case. Accordingly, the impugned order is set aside and the appellant is granted bail on terms and conditions to the satisfaction of the concerned Trial Court. 

In his 3-page long order dated December 1, 2025, Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh rejected the prayer of the petitioner who sought bail in a case registered for the offence punishable under Sections 302, 328, 376D and 34 of the Indian Penal Code. As per prosecution case, it was alleged that the petitioner, along with another co-accused, namely Dheeraj Jha, committed rape with the wife of informant and thereafter, administered her poison due to which, during course of treatment, she died. The senior counsel for the petitioner had submitted that the petitioner was quite innocent and had committed no offence. Informant was not an eye witness of the occurrence. As a matter of fact, wife of informant and the petitioner used to work at the same Office and on the alleged date and time of occurrence, wife of informant was getting unconscious and therefore, this petitioner, along with co-accused Dheeraj Jha, took her to a hospital and her husband was also informed. Moreover, charge-sheet had already been submitted and petitioner was in custody since November 19, 2024. The petitioner had got no criminal antecedents. A.P.P. for the State and
learned counsel for the informant had submitted that petitioner was named in the F.I.R. with specific accusation that he, along with another accused person, committed rape with the victim and administered her poison. On the way to hospital, the victim herself narrated the whole incident to the informant. Justice Singh had concluded: "6. Considering the facts and circumstances of the case, specific and direct nature of accusation and gravity of offence, the prayer for grant bail of to the petitioner is rejected. 7. However, considering the fact that the petitioner is in custody since 19.11.2024, the learned trial court is directed to
expedite the trial and conclude the same preferably within a period of one year from the date of receipt/production of a copy of this order."

Supreme Court sets aside order by Justice Rajesh Kumar Verma in a dowry death case

In Lal Muni Devi vs. The State  of Bihar & Anr. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justice J.B. Pardiwala and Vijay Bishnoi passed a 12-page long order dated March 25, 2026 wherein, it set aside a 4-page long order dated January 16, 2026 by Justice Rajesh Kumar Verma of the Patna High Court. Supreme Court concluded: "12. The impugned order passed by the High Court releasing the accused on bail is wholly unsustainable. In a very serious crime like dowry death, the High Court should have been very careful in exercising its discretion. The High Court in its impugned Order has not discussed anything. All that weighed with the High Court was that the accused was in judicial custody and only two witnesses had been examined till the date the High Court passed the impugned order. 13. The High Court lost sight of many important aspects of the matter, more particularly the post-mortem report indicating number of injuries on the body of the deceased, and the presumption of commission of offence as provided under Section 114 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023." 

In Vikash Kumar vs. The State of Bihar  Cr. Misc. No. 80290 of 2025, in his order dated January 16, 2026, Justice Verma had concluded: "....let the petitioner, above named, be released on bail on furnishing bail bond of Rs. 10,000/- (Ten Thousand) with two sureties of the like amount each to the satisfaction of the learned Additional Sessions Judge-II, Patna in connection with Gopalpur P.S. Case No. 365 of 2024", subject to certain specified conditions given the fact that the trial was not likely to be concluded in the near future and the petitioner was in custody since September 2, 2024.  

Prior to this in a 2-page long order dated May 16, 2025 in Vikash Kumar vs. The State of Bihar  Cr. Misc. No. 24229 of 2025, Justice Verma had concluded:"6. Considering the aforesaid facts and circumstances of the case, I am not inclined to enlarge the petitioner on bail in connection with Gopalpur P.S. Case No. 365 of 2024 pending in the Court of learned Judicial Magistrate 1st Class, Patna." Supreme Court appeared startled by change of the order within seven months. 

Notably, Justice Verma had recorded the submission of counsel for the Informant as well as APP for the State that the petitioner had committed the murder of the deceased and she has been died within one and half years of the marriage and witnesses have supported the case of the prosecution.   

This appeal against the order by Justice Verma had reached the Supreme Court at the instance of the original complainant (mother of the deceased), seeking to challenge the legality and validity of the Order passed by the High Court dated January 16, 2026, releasing the Respondent No.2 - original accused (husband of the deceased), on bail in connection with the First Information Report dated September 1, 2024 registered with the Gopalpur Police station, State of Bihar for the offence punishable under Sections 103(1) and 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. respectively. It appeared from the materials on record that the deceased was married to the accused past 1½ years. On September 1, 2024, the deceased was found dead at her matrimonial home in suspicious circumstances with external and internal injuries all over her body. The mother of the deceased lodged an FIR on the very same day and date. 

Supreme Court's order reads: "18. We are informed that the trial is in progress. On this ground alone, the High Court should have declined bail. 19. We are of the view that the impugned Order deserves to be set aside. The bail granted by the High Court should be cancelled and the Respondent No.2 - accused should be directed to surrender before the jail authorities. We order accordingly. 20. We clarify that our present observations are limited to deciding whether the bail granted by the High Court is liable to be cancelled. The trial court shall proceed on its own assessment of evidence uninfluenced by any of the remarks made herein. 21. The Trial Court shall see to it that the trial is completed within six months from today. 22. We grant one week’s time to the Respondent No.2 to surrender before the jail authority, failing which the trial court shall issue a non-bailable warrant of arrest. 23. The appeal stands disposed of. 24. There is a connected petition filed by the State seeking the very same relief of cancellation of bail. 25. In view of the order passed in the petition filed by the de-facto complainant, we need not pass a separate order in the petition filed by the State. 26. The same is disposed of accordingly. 27. Pending applications, if any, also stand disposed of. 28. The Registry shall forward one copy of this order to the Registrar General of the High Court of Patna who shall in turn place it before the Chief Justice of the High Court of Patna."


Remembering Asokan edicts on 2331st birth anniversary of Asoka, the Buddhist

In Outline of History (1920), H.G. Wells declared Asoka to be one of the six greatest men of history (the others being Buddha, Socrates, Aristotle, Roger Bacon and Abraham Lincoln), and he wrote about Asoka (in his "") in the following terms: "Asoka (264-227 B.C.) was one of greatest monarchs of history whose dominions extended from Afghanistan what is now the province of Madras. He is the only military monarch on record who abandoned. warfare after victory." 

Asoka had invaded Kalinga in 225 B. C. After the conquest, he declared that he would no longer seek conquest by war, but by religion, and the rest of his life was devoted to the spreading of Buddhism throughout the world. 

About Asoaka, Wells wrote: "He seems to have ruled his vast empire in peace and with great ability. He was no mere religious fanatic. But in the year of his one and only war he joined the Buddhist community as a layman, and some years later he became a full member of the Order, and devoted himself to the attainment of Nirvana by the Eightfold Path" including Right Aspiration, Right Effort and Right Livelihood

He set up long inscriptions rehearsing the teaching of Buddha. About thirty-five of his inscriptions survive even today. These are available at Serial nomination for Ashokan Edict sites along the Mauryan Routes.  These edicts can be seen at https://www.pbs.org/thestoryofindia/gallery/photos/6.html

The Asokan edicts hold the distinction of being the first written inscriptions in India following the decline of the ancient city of Harappa. Most of these edicts remain visible at their original locations due to being carved into immovable rocks and boulders. 

Through these inscriptions on stones and pillars, Asoka shared pivotal moments from his royal life. His words offer a glimpse into how he reshaped his own journey while attempting to transform the lives of people within his empire and even beyond its borders. 

The Asokan edicts convey a wide range of emotions, including sincerity and sentiment, discussions of death and devastation and authoritative commands. The remarkable preservation of these rock edicts is notable. 

Despite being over 2,200 years old, many of them appear almost exactly as they did when they were originally created. The survival of such ancient documents in their original form and locations is quite unusual. All of these rock edict sites are protected by Archaeological Survey of India.

The first known edict, sometimes classified as a Minor Rock Edict, is the Kandahar Bilingual Rock Inscription, in Greek and in Aramaic, written in the 10th year of his reign (260 BCE) at the border of his empire with the Hellenistic world, in the city of Old Jandahar in modern Afghanistan.

Asoka then made the first edicts in the Indian language, written in the Brahmi script, from the 11th year of his reign (according to his own inscription, "two and a half years after becoming a secular Buddhist", i.e. two and a half years at least after returning from the Kalinga conquest of the eighth year of his reign, which is the starting point for his remorse towards the horrors of the war, and his gradual conversion to Buddhism). The texts of the inscriptions are rather short, the technical quality of the engraving of the inscriptions is generally very poor, and generally very inferior to the pillar edicts dated to the years 26 and 27 of Asoka's reign.

There are several slight variations in the content of these edicts, depending on location, but a common designation is usually used, with Minor Rock Edict N°1 (MRE1) and a Minor Rock Edict N°2 (MRE2, which does not appear alone but always in combination with Edict N°1), the different versions being generally aggregated in most translations. 

The Maski version of Minor Rock Edict No.1 is historically particularly important in that it confirmed the association of the title "Devanampriya" with the name "Asoka", thereby clarifying the historical author of all these inscriptions. In the Gujarra version of Minor Rock Edict No.1 also, the name of Ashoka is used together with his full title: Devanampiya Piyadasi Asokaraja.

There is also a unique Minor Rock Edict No.3, discovered next to Bairat Temple, for the Buddhist clergy, which gives a list of Buddhist scriptures (most of them unknown now) which the clergy should study regularly.

His edicts (Dhamma Lipi) incised on pillars and rocks, in both condensed and elaborate versions are found all over the Indian sub-continent, from Shahbazgarhi now in Pakistan to Lauriya Nanadagarh in Bihar and from Girnar in Gujarat to Dhauli In Orissa and further south up to Yerragudi in Andhra Pradesh.

The Girnar edicts represented here by a metal cast of the inscribed rock are fourteen in umber, like those found at Yerragudi, Kalsi, Shahbazgarhi and Mansehra.

1. No living being may be slaughtered for sacrifice.

2. In and outside his dominions, Priyadarshi Ashoka has arranged for the medical treatment of man and beast.

3. Priyadarshi Ashoka ordered tours by his officers every five years to inspect and preach Dhamma (moral and social code of conduct) in his dominions, in addition to their regular duties and to teach his people to obey parents, be liberal to friends, relatives, Brahmanas and Sramanas (Monks), to abstain from killing animals.

4. Priyadarshi promotes Dhamma and expects his descendants like wise to continue to promote it.

5. Dhamma Mahamatras have been appointed for establishing and promoting Dhamma in his land even among the Yavanas, Kambojas, Gandharas, Rashtrikas and others.

6. Reports of affairs in his kingdom could be brought to his notice anytime, as he considered it his duty constantly and speedily to attend to the welfare of his subjects.

7. Priyadarshi wishes that all religious sects in his dominion should like in peace and amity and stresses self-control and purity of mind.

8. Priyadarshi who visited Sambodhi (Bodh Gaya, Bihar) started on pilgrimage of Dhamma making gift to Brahmanas and Sramanas, contacting the people of the countryside and exhorting them to follow the path of Dhamma.

9. Ceremonies associated with Dhamma produce great results. These are courtesy to slaves and servants, reverence to elders, restraint and liberality to Brahmanas and Sramanas. By this practice heaven is won.

10. Priyadarshi does not consider glory in this life or fame after death as of any consequences except the glory of his being able to induce his people to practice Dhamma.

11. There is no gift like the gift of Dhamma, there is no distribution like the distribution of Dhamma and no kinship like the kinship of Dhamma.

12. The growth of Dhamma is by the restraint of speech which means no praise of one’s own faith or disparagement of another.

13. The conquest of Kalinga resulting in unprecedented slaughter and carrying away of captives brought remorse to Priyadarshi. He was therefore determined for conquest through Dhamma.

14. This record relating to Dhamma has been inscribed in abridged or expanded form, so that people may act accordingly. 

The individual morality that Asoka propagated respect (//susrusa//) towards parents, elders, teachers, friends, servants, ascetics and brahmins -- behavior that accords with the advice given to Sigala by the Buddha (Digha Nikaya, Discourse No. 31). He encouraged generosity (//dana//) to the poor (//kapana valaka//), to ascetics and brahmins, and to friends and relatives. Not surprisingly, Asoka encouraged harmlessness towards all life (//avihisa bhutanam//). In conformity with the Buddha's advice in the Anguttara Nikaya, II:282, he also considered moderation in spending and moderation in saving to be good (//apa vyayata apa bhadata//). Treating people properly (//samya pratipati//), he suggested, was much more important than performing ceremonies that were supposed to bring good luck. Because it helped promote tolerance and mutual respect, Asoka desired that people should be well-learned (//bahu sruta//) in the good doctrines (//kalanagama//) of other people's religions. The qualities of heart that are recommended by Asoka in the edicts indicate his deep spirituality. They include kindness (//daya//), self-examination (//palikhaya//), truthfulness (//sace//), gratitude (//katamnata//), purity of heart (//bhava sudhi//), enthusiasm (//usahena//), strong loyalty (//dadha bhatita//), self-control (//sayame//) and love of the Dhamma (//Dhamma kamata//). 

NDPS cases of Nav Kumar Ojha, Shankar Yadav, Pritam Lakda listed for hearing on March 30

Nav Kumar Ojha's NDPS convicted case has been listed for hearing on March 30 in High Court along with the related case of Shankar Yadav and Pritam Lakda. The 2-page long order dated March 24, 2026 in Shankar Yadav and Pritam Lakra vs. The Union of India through the Intelligence Officer, Narcotices Control Bureau, Bihar (2026) by Division Bench of Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad and Soni Shrivastava reads:"This Court has been informed that one of the convicts from the same trial namely, Nav Kumar Ojha has filed Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 which is pending before this Bench. 2. It is submitted that since the said Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 arises out of the same impugned judgment and order, it would be appropriate to hear the present appeal together with Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025. 3. We agree with the submissions. 4. Learned counsel for the respondent is present. 5. List this matter together with Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 under the heading for hearing immediately after Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 is admitted. 6. The said appeal is likely to be listed under appropriate heading on 30.03.2026. Let this case be tagged with the said appeal and listed simultaneously with Cr. Appeal (DB) No. 1014 of 2025 under appropriate heading." Notably, the seller of the Ganja have not been prosecuted and the buyer of the Ganja has been acquitted. The State has not challenged the acquittal.    

In Nav Kumar Ojha vs. The Union of India (2026), Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad and Soni Shrivastava had passed an order dated March 13, 2026, wherein it sent a reminder to the trial court, Bhojpur to send the corrected copy of the impugned judgment to the High Court within one week. 

The order reads: "If the corrected copy is not received within the given period,  the record shall be placed before the learned Registrar General who will call upon the learned Principal District Judge, Bhojpur and ensure compliance with the order....4. List this matter on 30.03.2026 under appropriate heading." This  order was passed upon hearing Dr. Gopal Krishna, the counsel for the appellant who pointed out that the Court's previous order for rectifying the error in the trail court's order, has not been complied with as yet. The order by the trial court was authored by Birendra Kumar Choubey as Additional Sessions Judge, NDPS, Bhojpur.

At present, the High Court's website shows that a letter in this regard was sent on March 11, 2026 to District and Additional Session Judge VIII  and it was received on March  17, 2026. This is recorded on the case status page of the website. 

The appellant is in custody since February 2021 in connection with N.D.P.S Case No.6/2021, arising out of N.C.B. Case No. NCB/PZU/V/01/2021 dated 02.02.2021, for the offences punishable under Sections 8(c), 20(b) (ii) (C) and 25 NDPS Act. According to prosecution case, altogether 909.2 Kg ganja has been recovered from the truck in question, in which the petitioner along with other person was sitting, which was to be delivered to one Bijendra Kumar Ray. The fact is that the appellant was not on the truck in question. It is crystal clear from the F.I.R. as well as seizure list that nothing incriminating was recovered from his conscious possession. He was arrested and convicted on the basis of a confession of Shankar Yadav, the truck driver and Pritam Lakda, the helper made to the officer of the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB). In their confession in police custody it was stated that the appellant had escorted the truck by his Mahindra Scorpio till Aurangabad after that he had left for Chapra. The appellant has been exonerated from charges under Section 29 of the NDPS Act by the trial court.   

The related case Shankar Yadav and Pritam Lakda vs. Union of India is listed for hearing on March 23, 2026 before the same Division Bench. The trial court, Bhojpur had convicted Shankar Yadav (truck driver), Pritam Lakda (khalasi-helper) and Nav Kumar Ojha (truck owner) by its judgement and order dated May 9, 2023 and May 17, 2023. But had acquitted Birendar Kumar Ray, the recipient/buyer of the Ganja in question. It is significant that No case was pursued against the seller of the Ganja in question. Notably, the state did not file its appeal against the acquittal of Ray. The prosecution has failed to explain the chain of custody of the Ganja in question. In its 84-page long judgement by Additional Sessions Judge-VIII, Bhojpur with reference to four persons namely, 1) Bijendra Kumar Rai (Bihar), Nav Kumar Ojha (Jharkhand), Shankar Yadav  (Jharkhand) and Pritam Lakda (Jharkhand), all the four accused were acquitted of conspiracy charges (Section 29 of  Narcotic Drugs And Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985) by the trial court. But Bijendra Kumar Ray (Bihar), the kingpin was given the benefit of doubt, and acquitted by the trial court, and the remaining three-truck owner, driver and khalasi were convicted.

The last order dated May 9, 2024 in this case by High Court's Division bench of Justices Ashutosh Kumar and Jitendra Kumar recorded that the Advocates for Shankar Yadav, Pritam Lakra and Nav Kumar Ojha, the Appellants submitted that "the informant is the Investigator of this case which vitiates the entire  prosecution case. It has further been submitted that none of the mandatory provisions of the NDPS Act has been complied with." The argument was submitted by Dr. Gopal Krishna, the counsel for the second appellant. The High Court's order reads: "We have also been informed that the wife of another co-convict is mentally ill and, therefore, no appeal has been preferred on his behalf as yet. Apart from this, this Court has been informed that the main accused of this case has been acquitted on a specious plea which is not sustainable in the eyes of law. Though, taking into account the quantity of narcotics recovered from a vehicle of which the appellants are driver and cleaner respectively, we are not inclined to suspend their sentence presently. The prayer is rejected. However, we direct the registry to prepare the paper book urgently and get this case listed for final hearing in the second week of August commencing from 5th of August, 2024. We have said so for the reason that one of the co-convicts has still not preferred an appeal and the appellant No. 2 is a tribal student who is barely in his teens." 

Pritam Lakda, the second appellant, a resident of Jharkhand is in Buxer jail. Shankar Yadav, the first appellant is in Ara jail and is represented by Advocate Ravindra Kumar. Advocate Dr. Gopal Krishna  represents the second appellant. He also represents Nav Kumar Ojha, the third convict. The third convict, a resident of Jharkhand is in Buxer jail as well.

Section 20 of the NDPS Act deals with punishment for contravention in relation to cannabis plants and cannabis. It states that "Whoever, in contravention of any provision of this Act or any rule or order made or condition of licence granted thereunder,—(a) cultivates any cannabis plant; or (b) produces, manufactures, possesses, sells, purchases, transports, imports inter-State, exports inter-State or uses cannabis, shall be punishable..."  Section 20 (ii) b of the NDPS Act states that where such contravention relates to sub-clause (b) and involves quantity lesser than commercial quantity but greater than small quantity, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees. Section 20 (ii) (C) states that where such contravention relates to sub-clause (b), and involves commercial quantity, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to twenty years and shall also be liable to fine which shall not be less than one lakh rupees but which may extend to two lakh rupees: Provided that the court may, for reasons to be recorded in the judgment, impose a fine exceeding two lakh rupees.
 
The judgement of the the Additional Sessions Judge-VIII, Bhojpur reveals that Pritam Lakra, khalasi (helper) of the truck is not covered under the ambit of Section 20 (ii) (b) (C) of the NDPS Act because there is nothing on record to show that he is a cultivator of any cannabis plant or producer, manufacturer, possessor, seller, purchaser, transporter, inter-State importer, inter-State exporter or user of cannabis. It is apparent that the Additional Sessions Judge-VIII, Bhojpur committed an error in convicting him under Section 20 (ii) (b) (C) of the NDPS Act after exonerating him of charges under Section 29 of the NDPS Act.

As to Section 25 of NDPS Act which deals with the punishment for allowing premises, etc., to be used for commission of an offence, it states that "Whoever, being the owner or occupier or having the control or use of any house, room, enclosure, space, place, animal or conveyance, knowingly permits it to be used for the commission by any other person of an offence punishable under any provision of this Act, shall be punishable with the punishment provided for that offence." It is apparent that Pritam Lakda, the khalasi (helper) does not fall within the ambit of Section 25. 

Also read: Patna High Court detects error in sentencing order by Birendra Kumar Choubey as Additional Sessions Judge, NDPS, asks trial court to rectify its defect within one week 




Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices Alok Kumar Sinha, Sangam Kumar Sahoo sets aside judgement by Justice Harish Kumar

In The Patna High Court through its Registrar General, Patna High Court & Ors. vs. Chandan Kumar & Ors. (2026), Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices Alok Kumar Sinha and Sangam Kumar Sahoo delivered a 33-page long judgement dated March 24, 2026, wherein, it concluded:"....this Court is of the considered opinion that the impugned judgment and order dated 09.07.2025 passed by the learned Single Judge cannot be sustained in the eyes of law, inasmuch as the same proceeds on an erroneous application of legal principles, extends the benefit of earlier judgments beyond their intended scope, and overlooks material aspects relating to delay, laches and the statutory framework governing the field. The reasoning so adopted does not stand to judicial scrutiny and has resulted in an unwarranted direction for consideration of the writ petitioner’s case. 61. Accordingly, the appeal deserves to be and is hereby allowed; the impugned judgment and order is set aside, and the writ petition stands dismissed. There shall be no order as to costs." The other Appellants in this Letters Patent Appeal (LPA) were Registrar General, Patna High Court and. The Convenor, Co-ordination Committee-cum- District and Sessions Judge, Patna, District- Patna. The other Respondents were:The State of Bihar, through the Chief Secretary, Government of Bihar and the Law Secretary, Law Department, Government of Bihar. The judgement was authored by Justice Sinha. 

In his 18 page-long judgement dated July 9, 2025, Justice Harish Kumar, the Single Judge had observed: "25. This Court thus, hereby, held that the case of the petitioner is squarely covered with those of the decision rendered by the learned Division Bench in LPA No. 650 of 2022 with other analogous cases and LPA No. 727 of 2023 as well as LPA No. 261 of 2020. 26. Accordingly, the writ petition stands allowed. 27. The concerned respondent is hereby directed to consider the case of the petitioner, in view of the discussions made hereinabove and if the petitioner is otherwise eligible, issue necessary order in accordance with law and accord the similar treatment, as has been extended to the similarly situated candidates. The entire exercise must be completed preferably within a period of eight weeks, from the date of receipt/production of a copy of this order."

The L.P.A. was preferred by the appellants assailing the judgment and order dated July 9, 2025 passed by the Single Judge in C.W.J.C. No. 10521 of 2022, whereby the Single Judge, had held that the case of the Chandan Kumar, writ petitioner–respondent No. 1 was squarely covered by the judgments and orders dated April 19, 2023 passed in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 and analogous cases, dated January 18, 2024 passed in L.P.A. No. 727 of 2023, and dated December 16, 2024 passed in L.P.A. No. 261 of 2024, was pleased to allow the writ petition with a direction to the appellants to consider the case of the said respondent No. 1 and, if found otherwise eligible, to issue necessary orders of appointment and posting on the post of Clerk in the Civil Courts of Bihar, in accordance with law, by extending similar treatment as granted to other similarly situated candidates, and to complete the entire exercise preferably within a period of eight weeks from the date of receipt/production of a copy of the said judgment; the appellants, being aggrieved thereby, preferred the LPA praying for setting aside the impugned judgment and order as being unsustainable in law.

The Division Bench framed the following issued for consideration:
(i) Whether the writ petition filed by the respondent–writ petitioner was liable to be dismissed on the ground of delay, laches and acquiescence, particularly in view of the expiry of the panel/wait-list dated September 26, 2018 under Rule 7 of the Bihar Civil Court Staff (Class-III & IV) Rules, 2009?
(ii) Whether the respondent–writ petitioner can be treated as a “fence-sitter” disentitled to relief, or whether he had approached the Court with sufficient diligence so as to claim consideration?
(iii) Whether the learned Single Judge was justified in directing consideration of the respondent’s case for
appointment, in light of Rule 7 of the 2009 Rules and the admitted position that candidates with lower merit have already been appointed pursuant to judicial orders?
(iv) Whether the impugned judgment and order dated July 9, 2025 suffers from any legal infirmity, perversity or error apparent on the face of the record warranting interference by this Court in exercise of its Letters Patent Appellate jurisdiction? 

With regard to Issue no.(i), the The Division Bench observed: "17. At the outset, it needs to be examined whether the writ petition filed by the respondent–writ petitioner was maintainable in the teeth of the settled principles governing delay, laches and acquiescence, particularly when the select panel/wait- list dated 26.09.2018 had admittedly exhausted its statutory life on September 26, 2020 under Rule 7(13) of the Bihar Civil Court Staff (Class-III & IV) Rules, 2009. 18. From the undisputed facts on record, it emerges that the respondent–writ petitioner approached this Court by filing the present writ petition only on 22.07.2022. Even if his earlier attempt by way of filing I.A. No. 04 of 2022 on 09.05.2022 is taken into account, the same was also after the expiry of the two-year validity period of the panel, which came to an end on 26.09.2020. Thus, there is a clear and unexplained delay of more than one and a half years in invoking the writ jurisdiction. 19. It is well settled that though no rigid period of limitation applies to proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution, the principles of delay and laches are nonetheless applicable with full force." 

The Division Bench relied on Supreme Court's decision in State of U.P. vs. Harish Chandra reported in (1996) 9 SCC 309, while dealing with a claim arising out of an expired select list, categorically held that no mandamus can be issued for appointment once the select list has lapsed. In paragraph 10 of the said judgment, it has been observed that: “10. Notwithstanding the aforesaid Statutory Rule and without applying the mind to the aforesaid Rule the High Court relying upon some earlier decisions of the Court came to hold that the list does not expire after a period of one year which on the face of it is erroneous. Further question that arises in this context is whether the High Court was justified in issuing the mandamus to the appellant to make recruitment of the Writ Petitioners. Under the Constitution, a mandamus can be issued by the Court when the applicant establishes that he has a legal right to the performance of legal duty by the party against whom the mandamus is sought and said right was subsisting on the date of the petition. The duty that may be enjoined by mandamus may be one imposed by the Constitution or a Statute or by Rules or orders having the force of law. But no mandamus can be issued to direct the Government to refrain from enforcing the provision of law or to do something which is contrary to law. This being the position and in view of the Statutory Rules contained in Rule 26 of the Recruitment Rules we really fail to understand how the High Court could issue the impugned direction to recruit the respondents who were included in the select list prepared on 4.4.87 and the list no longer survived after one year and the rights, it any, of persons included in the list did not subsist. In the course of hearing, the learned counsel for the respondents, no doubt have pointed out some materials which indicate that the Administrative Authorities have made the appointments from a list beyond the period of one year from its preparation. The learned counsel appearing for the appellants submitted that in some cases pursuance to the direction of the Court some appointments have been made but in some other cases it might have been done by the Appointing Authority. Even though we are persuaded to accept the submission of the learned counsel for the respondents that on some occasion appointments have been made by the Appointing Authority from a select list even after the expiry of one year from the date of selection but such illegal action of the Appointing Authority does not confer a right on an applicant to be enforced by a Court under Article 226 of the Constitution. We have no hesitation in coming to the conclusion that such appointments by the Appointing Authority have been made contrary to the provisions of the Statutory Rules for some unknown reason and we deprecate the practice adopted by the Appointing Authority in making such appointments contrary to the Statutory Rules. But at the same time it is difficult for us to sustain the direction given by the High Court since, admittedly, the life of the select list prepared on 4.4.87 had expired long since and the respondents who claim their rights to be appointed on the basis of such list did not have a subsisting right on the date they approached the High Court. We may not be understood to imply that the High Court must issue such direction, if the writ Petition was filed before the expiry of the period of one year and the same was disposed of after the expiry of the statutory period. In view of the aforesaid conclusion of ours it is not necessary to deal with the question whether the stand of the State Government that there existed one vacancy in the year 1987 is correct or not.” 

The Division Bench observed: "20. Therefore, it can be inferred that even if certain appointments were made beyond the life of the select list, such illegal acts would not confer any enforceable right upon others to seek similar relief through Court."

The Division Bench relied on the decision in Chairman/Managing Director, U.P. Power Corporation Ltd. vs. Ram Gopal reported in (2021) 13 SCC 225, wherein, the Supreme Court reiterated that a candidate who approaches the Court after expiry of the validity of a select list cannot claim appointment merely because others with lesser merit, who were vigilant and approached the Court in time, have been granted relief. The Court emphasized that delay defeats equity and that stale claims ought not to be entertained in writ jurisdiction. 

Justice Sinha observed: "22. Applying the aforesaid principles to the facts of the present case, it is evident that the respondent–writ petitioner did not assert his rights within the subsistence of the panel. In contrast,
the writ petitioners in C.W.J.C. Nos. 21219 of 2018 and 6259 of 2019 had approached the Court during the validity of the panel itself, i.e., within the two-year period. It is this distinguishing factor which weighed with the Division Bench while granting relief to them in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022. Thus, the foundation of the relief granted in those cases was timely assertion of rights, which is conspicuously absent in the case of the present respondent. 23. The contention advanced on behalf of the respondent that he had filed an interlocutory application in the year 2022 while earlier writ petitions were pending does not improve his case. The cause of action, if any, had arisen when the panel was in force and vacancies allegedly remained unfilled. The respondent, however, chose not to approach the Court during that period and remained indolent. The mere pendency of other litigations cannot extend the life of a statutory panel nor can it revive a stale cause of action."

Justice Sinha observed: "24. The reliance placed by the respondent on State of U.P. vs. Arvind Kumar Srivastava (Supra), is also misplaced. While paragraph 22.2 of the said judgment does lay down that similarly situated persons should ordinarily be treated alike, it equally carves out a clear exception in cases of delay and laches. The Hon’ble Supreme Court has specifically held that: '22.2 However, this principle is subject to well recognized exceptions in the form of laches and delays as well as acquiescence. Those persons who did not challenge the wrongful action in their cases and acquiesced into the same and woke up after long delay only because of the reason that their counterparts who had approached the Court earlier
in time succeeded in their efforts, then such employees cannot claim that the benefit of the judgment rendered in the case of similarly situated persons be extended to them. They would be treated as fence-sitters and laches and delays, and/or the acquiescence, would be a valid ground to dismiss their claim.' 25. Therefore, those people cannot claim parity and are liable to be treated as fence-sitters. The present case, in the considered view of this Court, falls squarely within the said exception."

Justice Sinha recollected that coordinate Benches of the High Court, in C.W.J.C. No. 1063 of 2024 and C.W.J.C. No. 4175 of 2024, rejected identical claims raised by similarly situated candidates on the ground of delay and laches. The Division Bench judgement reads: "The respondent’s case stands on no better footing and, in fact, suffers from the same infirmity. The submission that the authorities themselves were at fault in not operating the panel in terms of Rule 7 does not entitle the respondent to seek relief after the expiry of the panel. Even assuming there was an illegality on the part of the authorities, the law is well settled that such illegality must be challenged within a reasonable time. A litigant cannot be permitted to sleep over his rights and thereafter seek equitable relief at his convenience. 28. In view of the aforesaid discussion, this Court is of the considered opinion that the writ petition filed by the respondent–writ petitioner was clearly barred by delay, laches and acquiescence, having been instituted after the expiry of the statutory period of validity of the panel/wait-list dated 26.09.2018. The learned Single Judge, with respect, erred in overlooking this fundamental aspect and in entertaining the writ petition despite the respondent’s belated approach. 29. Accordingly, this issue is answered in favour of the appellant."

With regard to Issue no.(ii) the Division Bench considered whether the respondent–writ petitioner can be treated as a “fence-sitter” and thereby disentitled to relief, or whether he had approached the Court with due diligence so as to claim consideration. The concept of a “fence-sitter” has been consistently explained by the Supreme Court to denote those persons who, despite having a cause of action, choose not to assert their rights within a reasonable time and approach the Court only after others have succeeded in similar litigation. Such persons are ordinarily denied relief on the ground of delay, laches and acquiescence.

Justice Sinha relied on Supreme Court's decision in State of U.P. vs. Arvind Kumar Srivastava, reported in (2015) 1 SCC 347, wherein, while laying down the principle of parity, carved out a clear exception in paragraph 22, observing that those who do not challenge the wrongful action in time and wake up only after seeing the success of others, cannot claim the benefit of such judgments. The Court held that such persons are to be treated as “fence-sitters” and their claims can be legitimately rejected on the ground of delay and acquiescence.

He also drew on Supreme Court's decision in Shiba Shankar Mohapatra vs. State of Orissa, reported in (2010) 12 SCC 471, wherein the Court reiterated that a person who sleeps over his rights and allows the situation to settle cannot be permitted to disturb the same at a belated stage. The Court cautioned that stale claims should not be entertained, particularly where rights of others have crystallized in the meantime. Justice Sinha observed:"34. Applying the aforesaid principles to the present case, it is evident that the respondent–writ petitioner did not approach the Court during the subsistence of the panel/wait-list, which remained valid till 26.09.2020. On the contrary, the candidates who were granted relief in earlier rounds of litigation had approached the Court in the years 2018–2019 itself, i.e., within the validity period of the panel, asserting their rights in a timely manner. 35. The respondent, however, chose not to take recourse to legal remedy during this crucial period. His first attempt to intervene was made only on 09.05.2022 by filing I.A. No. 04 of 2022, which too was subsequently withdrawn. Thereafter, the writ petition came to be filed on 22.07.2022. By this time, not only had the panel expired nearly two years earlier, but even the earlier writ petitions had already been heard and were on the verge of being decided. 36. The submission advanced on behalf of the respondent that he cannot be treated as a fence-sitter because he approached the Court before the decision in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 does not merit acceptance. The relevant consideration is not whether he approached the Court before or after the appellate judgment, but whether he asserted his rights within the period when the cause of action was alive. In the present case, the cause of action arose during the validity of the panel, yet the respondent failed to act within that period. The distinction between vigilant litigants and fence-sitters is thus clearly borne out from the record. The earlier writ petitioners were vigilant and approached the Court at the appropriate time, whereas the respondent remained passive
and approached the Court only after a considerable lapse of time. The fact that he filed the writ petition before the appellate decision does not erase the delay which had already occurred.

Justice Sinha pointed out that in the judgment in Lt. Col. Suprita Chandel vs. Union of India (Supra), the Court extended the benefit to similarly situated persons in the absence of delay attributable to them. However, the said judgment itself recognizes that in exceptional cases, particularly where delay and acquiescence are present, the benefit may be denied. The present case clearly falls within such exception. He observed: "39. In the considered opinion of this Court, the conduct of the respondent reflects that he chose to remain on the sidelines and did not assert his rights when the opportunity was available. It is only after considerable delay that he approached the Court seeking parity with those who had been vigilant. Such conduct squarely attracts the doctrine of fence-sitting as explained by the Hon’ble Supreme Court. 40. Accordingly, this Court holds that the respondent–writ petitioner is liable to be treated as a “fence-sitter” and is not entitled to claim relief on the basis of parity with those candidates who had approached the Court with due diligence. This issue is, therefore, answered in favour of the appellant.

With regard to the Issue no.(iii), the High Court considered whether the learned Single Judge was justified in directing consideration of the respondent–writ petitioner for appointment in the light of Rule 7 of the Bihar Civil Court Staff (Class-III & IV) Rules, 2009, particularly when it is an admitted position that certain candidates, securing marks lower than that of the writ petitioner, have already been appointed pursuant to judicial orders. 

The Division Bench noted that Rule 7(12), (13) and (14) of the Rules, 2009 clearly envisage preparation of a common merit panel and its operation for a period of two years for the purpose of filling not only existing vacancies but also anticipated vacancies arising on account of non-joining, resignation, etc. The Division Bench, while deciding L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 and analogous cases (order dated 19.04.2023), has
already interpreted these provisions and returned a categorical finding that the authorities were under a statutory obligation to operate the panel for the said period and consider eligible candidates in order of merit.

The crucial question was not the existence of vacancies or the merit position alone, but whether such a direction for consideration can be extended to every candidate irrespective of the nature and scope of the earlier judgment. The Division Bench noted that "it is evident that the benefit flowing from the judgment dated 19.04.2023 was extended only to those candidates who were parties to the earlier litigation or who had asserted their rights within a reasonable time. The appellants have consistently contended that the said judgment is one in personam and not in rem. This distinction is of considerable importance. Even if it is accepted that certain candidates with lower marks have been appointed pursuant to orders passed in earlier rounds of litigation, although they came to the court within stipulated time frame, such appointments cannot automatically confer an enforceable right upon the present writ petitioner. The doctrine of equality enshrined under Article 14 is a positive concept and does not envisage repetition of an illegality."

In Lt. Col. Suprita Chandel vs. Union of India (Supra),  while the Hon’ble Supreme Court emphasized that
similarly situated persons should not be driven to litigation repeatedly, the same was in the context where the earlier judgment was not restricted in its operation. In the present case, however, there was nothing to indicate that the Division Bench intended its judgment in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 to operate universally for all candidates irrespective of their conduct or delay. It is also important to bear in mind that the direction issued by the Division Bench was for “consideration” of the cases of the appellants therein against vacancies arising within the validity period of the panel. Such a direction was clearly confined to those who had approached the Court and cannot be stretched to revive a lapsed panel for all candidates at large.

The Single Judge was primarily influenced by the fact that candidates with lesser marks had already been appointed. However, such reasoning overlooks the settled legal position that parity cannot be claimed in illegality or irregularity, and that each case must be tested on its own merits, including the conduct of the claimant and the scope of the earlier judicial directions. The Division Bench was of the considered opinion that the learned Single Judge was not justified in issuing a direction for consideration of the writ petitioner solely on the ground that persons with lower merit had been appointed. The direction fails to appreciate the limited and person-specific nature of the earlier judgments, as well as the settled principle that Article 14 does not envisage negative equality. "48. Accordingly, the issue is answered in favour of the appellants, holding that the impugned direction for consideration of the respondent–writ petitioner for appointment is unsustainable in law.

With regard to Issue no.(iv), teh Division Bench considered whether the impugned judgment and order dated July 9, 2025 passed by the Single Judge suffers from any legal infirmity, perversity or error apparent on the face of the record so as to warrant interference in exercise of the Letters Patent Appellate jurisdiction.

As part of the Division Bench Justice Sinha observed: "50. At the outset, it is well settled that the scope of
interference in an intra-court appeal is not as narrow as that under Article 226 against administrative action, yet the Appellate Court would ordinarily interfere where the judgment under appeal is found to be contrary to settled legal principles, based on misapplication of law, or resulting in manifest injustice. A finding can be said to be perverse when it is either based on no evidence, ignores material evidence, or applies incorrect legal standards
. 51. Examining the impugned judgment on the touchstone of the above principles, it appears that the learned Single Judge proceeded on two principal considerations: first, that the writ petitioner was similarly situated to those candidates who had succeeded in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 and analogous cases; and second, that candidates having lower marks had already been appointed and, therefore, denial of similar benefit to the writ petitioner would be discriminatory. 52. However, in arriving at the aforesaid conclusion, the learned Single Judge has failed to properly appreciate certain crucial aspects which go to the root of the matter. 53. Firstly, the learned Single Judge has treated the judgment rendered in L.P.A. No. 650 of 2022 as having a general or universal application, without examining whether the said judgment was intended to operate in rem or was confined to the parties before the Court. As has already been discussed, the direction issued therein was clearly for consideration of the cases of the appellants in those appeals. There is no indication that the Division Bench intended to extend the benefit automatically to all candidates forming part of the wait-list irrespective of their conduct or delay. The failure to draw this distinction has resulted in an erroneous extension of the benefit to the present writ petitioner. 54. Secondly, the learned Single Judge has placed substantial reliance on the fact that certain candidates with lower marks were appointed pursuant to judicial orders. While this factual position may not be in dispute, the legal inference drawn therefrom is flawed. The learned Single Judge, by directing consideration of the writ petitioner on the ground that persons with lesser marks have been appointed, has effectively applied the doctrine of negative equality, which is impermissible in law. This, in the considered opinion of this Court, constitutes a clear error in application of settled legal principles. 55. Thirdly, the issue of delay and laches, though noticed, has not been adequately appreciated in its proper legal perspective. The appellants had specifically contended that the writ petitioner approached the Court after a considerable lapse of time and, therefore, could not claim parity with those who had been vigilant in asserting their rights. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in State of U.P. vs. Arvind Kumar Srivastava (Supra) has clearly held that though similarly situated persons are ordinarily entitled to equal treatment, this principle is subject to exceptions, particularly in cases involving delay, laches and acquiescence. Persons who wake up after long delay cannot claim the same relief as those who approached the Court in time. 56. The impugned judgment, however, proceeds to hold that the writ petitioner is not a fence-sitter without adequately reconciling this finding with the admitted timeline of events and the conduct of the petitioner. Such a conclusion, without proper analysis of the legal standards governing delay and acquiescence, renders the finding vulnerable. 57. Fourthly, the learned Single Judge has also not given due weight to the fact that the panel/wait-list in question had a statutory life of two years under Rule 7 of the Rules, 2009. Once the panel had lapsed, any direction for consideration would have to be strictly in accordance with law and cannot be issued in a routine manner, particularly when such direction has the effect of unsettling subsequent recruitment processes."

In the penultimate paragraphs, the Justice Sinha observed:" 58. In view of the aforesaid discussion, this Court finds that the impugned judgment suffers from misapplication of law, particularly in relation to (i) the scope and applicability of the earlier Division Bench judgment, (ii) the impermissible reliance on negative equality, and (iii) inadequate consideration of delay and laches. These errors go to the root of the matter and cannot be said to be mere errors of appreciation. 59. Accordingly, it is held that the impugned judgment and order dated 09.07.2025 does suffer from legal infirmity and error apparent on the face of the record, warranting interference by this Court in exercise of its Letters Patent Appellate jurisdiction.

Regulation of fees of Advocates

The Bar Council of India, a statutory body under the Advocates Act, 1961 has informed Union Ministry of Law and Justice that the standard of professional conduct and etiquettes for lawyers has been prescribed under the Chapter-II, Part-VI of the Bar Council of India Rules framed under the Advocates Act, 1961. 

The relevant rule in this regard reads:-"11. An advocate is bound to accept any brief in the Courts or tribunals or before any other authorities in or before which he proposes to practice at a fee consistent with his standing at the Bar and the nature of the case."

The BCI does not control or have a say over the maximum professional fee which can be charged by a legal practitioner. Accordingly, Advocates charge their fee from their clients as per their standing and seniority in the Bar and the Bar Council of India does not control the fee charged by the advocates.

The maximum fees of legal practioners of the Supreme Court of India and High Courts of different States is not fixed. 


Wednesday, March 25, 2026

Patna High Court to condole death of Raghib Ahsan, a senior advocate, Advocate Dr. Indira Lakshmi & other five advocates

There will be a Full Court Reference on March 26, 2026, in the Centenary Hall of Patna High Court to condole the sad demise of Raghib Ahsan, Senior Advocate along with Dr. Indira Lakshmi, Randhir Kumar Singh, Ras Bihari Thakur, Gajendra Prasad Yadav, Braj Nandan Singh, and Ravineshwar Dayal @ Ravi, Advocates of the Court. 

On March  18, 2026, in one of his last appearances, Raghib Ahsan argued in Sk. Md. Nasim @ Md. Nasim & Ors. vs Sk. Saghir Alam (2026) before Justice Khatim Reza of the High Court. He was assisted by Wasi Akhtar counsel for the appellants. This Second Appeal was filed by the defendant/appellants against the judgment and decree of affirmance. Title Suit No. 196 of 1989/156 of 2004 was filed by the plaintiff/respondent for declaration of his right, title and possession over the suit land and the defendants had got no concern on the suit land and also for recovery of possession if the plaintiff was dispossessed from the suit land by the defendants during the pendency of the suit. The suit was decreed by the Munsif-1, Gopalganj by the judgment and decree dated August 31, 2006, against which, the defendants filed Title Appeal No. 167 of 2006, which was dismissed by the Additional District Judge-VIII, Gopalganj by its judgment and decree dated September 27, 2016, which was under challenged in the instant Second Appeal.

Both the courts below after considering the pleadings and evidence of the parties, came to a definite conclusion that on the basis of registered gift deed dated May 19, 1979, the right, title and possession of the plaintiff was proved by the valid documents, such as registered deed of gift, Mutation order as well as rent receipts. It appeared from the judgment of the First Appellate Court, which was final court of facts, the First Appellate Court after considering each and every issued framed by the trial court and came to a separate and independent finding. The First Appellate Court clearly observed that from Paragraph no. 31 of the written statement, it appeared that they clearly stated that their father Abdul Rahman wanted to divide his property in between his two sons i.e. the plaintiff and defendant no. 1, but on going through documentary evidence as available on records, it was  found that said Abhul Rahman executed deed of gift in respect to the suit land in favour of the plaintiff voluntarily which is evident from other documentary evidence. Notably, certified copy of Ekrarnama dated September 4, 1984 executed by the father of the plaintiff and defendant no. 1 in favour of Sk. Saghir Alam (plaintiff). Mutation Case No. 798 of 1985-86 filed between Sk. Saghir Alam (plaintiff) Vs. Sk. Abdul Rahman and certified copy of Mutation Order passed in the aforesaid mutation case in favour of the plaintiff have also clarified that the registered deed of gift dated May 19, 1979 was correct, legal and valid documents and the same was also supported by the reports of the Fingerprint Expert. The First Appellate Court after perusing the oral and documentary evidence held that the deed of cancellation dated August 30, 1979 was forged and fabricated. The trial court rightly and correctly decided the issues in favour of the plaintiff/respondent. 

On scrutinising the oral as well as documentary evidence, it was also held that the alleged cancellation deed dated August 30, 1979 were all forged, fabricated and void documents. The suit was not barred by law of limitation and the suit as framed and filed by the plaintiff against the defendants/appellants was maintainable. The First Appellate Court found no infirmities in the judgment of the the trial court. So far as the point that the First Appellate Court failed to formulate points of determination as required under Order XLI Rule 31 of the Code of Civil Procedure (in short 'CPC') was concerned, it was apparent from the judgment of the First Appellate Court that it had considered all the issues framed by the trial court independently and cited reasons for recording decision. There was no doubt that it was desirable that the appellate court should comply with all the requirements of Order XLI Rule 31 CPC, but if it was possible to make out from the judgment that there was substantial compliance with the said requirements and that justice had not thereby suffered, that would be sufficient. Where the appellate court considered the entire evidence on record and discussed the same in detail, came to any conclusion that its findings were supported by reasons even though the point was not framed by the appellate court, there was substantial compliance with the provision of Order XLI Rule 31 CPC and the judgment was not in any manner vitiated by the absence of a point of determination. The aforesaid view was taken by the Supreme Court in G. Amalorpavam & Ors. Vs. R.C. Diocese.

In the case, the appellate court had considered all the oral and documentary evidences adduced by the parties and considered the issues as framed by the learned trial court separately and given its findings independently. The father of the plaintiff, namely, Abdul Rahman had executed deed of gift in respect of the suit land in favour of the plaintiff followed by delivery of possession and the name of the plaintiff was entered in the revenue records through due process of law. The said registered deed of gift was challenged by the defendants in any competent Civil Court. 

The Registrar or Sub-Registrar had no jurisdiction to cancel the registered Gift Deed or Sale Deed. Moreover, the First Appellate Court held that the cancellation deed dated August 30, 1979, A sale deed dated October 13, 1984 executed by Md. Muslim in favour of Sk. Rahman; sale deed dated October 12, 1984 executed by Sk. Rahman in favour of Sk. Md. Yasin and deed of gift dated October 12, 1984 executed by Abdul Rahman in favour of Sk. Md. Nasim were forged fabricated and void documents on the basis of material oral as well as documentary evidences.

Justice Reza concluded: "7. In view of the aforesaid facts and circumstances of the case as well as materials on record, it is quite apparent that the judgment and decree of the courts below are covered by the findings of facts and no question of law much less substantial questions of law arises for consideration in the instant Second Appeal.8. Accordingly, this Second Appeal is dismissed at the stage of Admission under Order XLI Rule 11 CPC. 9. Pending interlocutory application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of."

As to Dr. Indira Lakshmi (65), the woman lawyer practicing at the High Court and and Civil Court, her partially-burnt body was found at her residence in Rajendra Nagar locality under Kadam Kuan police station area of Patna, Bihar on February 11, 2026. She was found dead under mysterious circumstances at her residence. Her body was recovered from the two-storey house located on Rajendra Nagar Road No. 2. The lady advocate used to live alone in the house as her husband, Amarendra Kumar, resides in Ranchi, Jharkhand, while her daughter lives in Bengaluru. The tenants residing in the building noticed the partially burnt body inside the house on the morning of February 11. They informed the police. It is not clear as to whether the death was accidental or the result of a planned crime. The body was sent to Patna Medical College and Hospital (PMCH) for post-mortem examination, which was conducted in the presence of family members. The lawyers’ associationdemanded a thorough probe into this case. The caretaker reported that Lakshmi was sitting in the verandah until midnight. She had returned to Patna on February 1 after visiting her husband in Ranchi. She had not been going to court after that. It is not clear as to why had she stopped going to the court. 







 

Monday, March 23, 2026

Justice Abhay S. Oka to act as Ombudsman of Bihar Cricket Association, after submission of Justice L. Nageswara Rao's recommendations

In Bihar Cricket Association vs. Bihar Cricket Association & Ors. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of J.B. Pardiwala nd K.V. Viswanathan passed a 3-page order dated March 20, 2026 whereby, it appointed Justice Abhay S. Oka, former Judge of the Supreme Court of India to act as the Ombudsman of the Bihar Cricket Association.  

By its order dated August 12, 2025, the Court had appointed Justice L. Nageswara Rao, former Judge of the Supreme Court of India as the Ombudsman of the Bihar Cricket Association. The appointment was made to work out the modalities for the smooth functioning of the Association. As Ombudsman, Justice Rao forwarded his exhaustive report alongwith a separate note.The Court took the Report on record. Justice Rao requested that he may now be relieved from the assignment. The Court expressed gratitude towards him. 

Now Justice Oka is to take charge as the Ombudsman. The fees of the Ombudsman, along with other modalities, shall be fixed in consultation with the parties. The Court's order reads: "11. We direct the Bihar Cricket Association to pay Rs. 5,00,000/- (Rupees Five Lakh) to Mr. Viduspat Singhania, Managing Partner of Krida Legal and his Associates, who assisted the learned Ombudsman in the enquiry and preparation of the report. 12. Since the report is now on record, the Registry shall also provide a digital copy of the report prepared by the learned Ombudsman to all the parties in the present litigation. 13. We shall look into all other recommendations made by the Former Ombudsman on the next date of hearing."

Supreme Court stays operation of Justice Sandeep Kumar's order, and proceedings pursuant to cognizance order by S.D.J.M., Buxar

In Kamla Devi @ Kamla Sharma & Ors. vs. State of Bihar & Anr. (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices Sanjay Karol and Augustine George Masih passed a 2-page long order dated March 20, 2026, wherein it stayed the operation of the order dated January 13, 2026 passed by Justice Sandeep Kumar of Patna High Court. Supreme Court's order reads: "....further proceedings arising out of Complaint Case No. 1006/2009, including proceedings pursuant to the cognizance order dated 27.07.2010 passed by the learned S.D.J.M., Buxar, shall remain stayed." 

Justice Kumar has passed the order upon hearing the application filed for quashing the order dated Juky 27, 2010 passed by the S.D.J.M., Buxar by which, cognizance was taken under Sections 498A and 323 of the Indian Penal Code against the petitioners. This order was challenged by the petitioner in the High Court in the year 2016 i.e., after more than six years, after an inordinate delay. 

Justice Kumar observed that this application was dismissed solely on the ground of delay and laches with liberty to the petitioners to raise all the grounds at the stage of discharge. He wrote: "5. If such an application is filed, the same shall be considered by the Court below in view of the law laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Kanchan Kumar Vs. The State of Bihar reported in (2022) 9 SCC 577. 6. Interim protection granted to the petitioners by order dated 06.09.2023 is hereby vacated. 7. Let a copy of this order be communicated to the Principal District & Sessions Judge, Buxar through FAX for its compliance forthwith."

Sunday, March 22, 2026

Division Bench of Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad and Sourendra Pandey sets aside conviction under NDPS Act by Katihar trial court

In Sanjeev Dev Verma & Anr. vs. State of Bihar 2026 (1) PLJR 493, Patna High Court's Division Bench of Justices Rajeev Ranjan Prasad and Sourendra Pandey delivered a 34-page long judgment dated December 16, 2025 upon hearing an appeal against the judgment dated dated February 23, 2023 and order of sentence dated February 27, 2023 by Additional Sessions Judge-III-cum Successor of Court of A.S.J.-IV, Kathihar in a N.D.P.S. Case. The trial court had convicted the the appellants namely Sanjeev Dev Verma, Tapas Dev Verma and Sanjeet Dev Verma for the offences under Sections 20(b)(C) read with Section 25/29 of the N.D.P.S Act. They were sentenced to undergo rigorous imprisonment for 14 years for the offence under Section 20(b)(C) read with Section 25/29 of the N.D.P.S Act and also to pay a fine of Rs. 1,00,000/- each. The Division Bench concluded:"....we are of the considered opinion that the prosecution has not proved it’s case beyond all reasonable doubt, therefore, we set aside the judgment and order of conviction and sentence of the appellants and acquit them of the charges giving them benefit of doubt." Earlier, seven persons were arrested but four accused were not convicted under the NDPS Act by the trial court.

The High Court found serious lapses in how the police handled seizure, sampling and legal formalities. The case arises from an alleged seizure of ganja on January 30, 2018 in Katihar, Bihar. Officers of the Special Task Force, Patna, allegedly passed secret information to the Station House Officer (SHO) of Katihar Town (Sahayak) Police Station about a truck carrying cannabis from Tripura to Bihar, escorted by a Bolero vehicle.As per the written report, the SHO formed two raiding teams. Around 05:00 a.m., a Bolero followed by a truck was intercepted near Kolasi Petrol Pump. Seven persons were apprehended from both vehicles. The police claimed that, after serving notice under Section 50 of the NDPS Act and in the presence of independent witnesses, they searched the truck and recovered 110 packets of ganja (weighing 644.5 kg) from a hidden chamber behind the driver’s seat. Mobile phones and cash were allegedly recovered from the occupants. The contraband was said to have been weighed, samples drawn, and seizure lists prepared and signed by independent witnesses and accused persons. All seven persons were arrested on the spot.

On this basis, Katihar Town (Sahayak) P.S. Case No. 73 of 2018 was registered on January 30, 2018 under Sections 8/20(b)(ii)(C)/25/29 of the NDPS Act. After investigation, charge-sheet No. 189 of 2018 dated July 27, 2018 was submitted under the same sections. Cognizance was taken on August 3, 2018 against seven accused, including the appellants. The case was tried as NDPS Case No. 03 of 2018 in the trial court. The prosecution examined 13 witnesses and produced various documents, including the Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL) report.

The Division Bench heard the appeals agaisnt the judgement by the trial court. The appellants’ counsel argued that the entire prosecution was vitiated by non-compliance with mandatory provisions of the NDPS Act. There was violation of Section 42 (information and reporting to superior officers), non-compliance of Sections 50, 52, 52A and 57, failure to prove seizure through independent witnesses, lack of evidence on sampling and safe custody, and delay and irregularity in sending samples to FSL. It observed that the driver, khalasi and a passenger were convicted merely because ganja was allegedly found in a concealed box in the truck, without proper proof that they knowingly possessed or transported it. The High Court re-examined the trial record and evidence of all 13 prosecution witnesses. 

The Court examined how sampling and custody of the seized material were handled. The FIR stated that small quantities were taken from packets P1, P2, P3 and P4, mixed, and a sample prepared at the spot. In his examination-in-chief, the informant (PW-2, the SHO) had not mentioned any sampling at the place of occurrence. He only stated that seizure lists were prepared, the ganja was kept in sacks, sealed, and brought to the police station for keeping in the malkhana. There was no disclosure about where or how any sample was kept. PW‑1 and PW‑3, did not support the FIR version that sampling was done at the spot. PW‑13 stated that sealing was done at the police station. He did not remember in how many packets it was sealed. None of the witnesses explained when, where and in whose presence samples were drawn.

The Court recorded that an application was made by the Investigating Officer (PW‑6) for sending samples to the FSL at Patna and to a laboratory at Kolkata, and permission was granted on the same day. But  the FSL report from Patna recorded that the sample was received there only on July 23, 2018, based on memo no. 795 of 2018 dated April 30, 2018—almost three months after the memo date. There was no evidence on where and in what condition the samples remained during this period. The Court observed: “the very sampling of the seized material becomes doubtful”. 

The Division Bench examined compliance with Section 52A of the NDPS Act, which requires preparation of an inventory, drawing of representative samples, and certification by a Magistrate. Citing the provision at length, the Court emphasised that the officer must apply to a Magistrate for certifying the correctness of the inventory, taking photographs in the Magistrate’s presence, and allowing representative samples to be drawn and certified. On perusal of the trial court record, the High Court found no application to any Magistrate for certification, no Magistrate’s certificate, and no photographs. There was also no material to show that samples were drawn in the presence of a Magistrate. The trial court’s own judgment recorded that the seized narcotics “may be destroyed if the same has not yet been done”, indicating that mandatory pre-disposal certification did not happen. The Court held that this amounted to “complete violation of Section 52A”. It drew adverse inference against the prosecution regarding the alleged seizure of such a huge consignment. 

The two independent seizure witnesses, PW‑10 and PW‑11, did not support the prosecution. PW‑10 said that while he was sitting at a tea stall, 2–3 officers asked him to sign some papers. They told him it was a formality, and that he had not seen any article being seized. PW‑11 stated he had not seen any truck being seized or any material recovered and could not identify the accused. Both were declared hostile. The independent witnesses disowned the seizure, and police witnesses gave inconsistent details about fog, the presence of a following vehicle, and other circumstances. The Court inferred that the prosecution version lacks reliability.

The Investigating Officer (PW‑6) admitted in cross-examination that he submitted charge-sheet without receiving the FSL report. He stated that charge-sheet was filed in hurry to ensure that the accused could not get bail. The FSL report from Patna was dated September 27, 2019 but was produced before the trial court only on November 24, 2021, at the fag end of the trial. Defence counsel had objected to its exhibition, yet the trial court overruled the objection and marked it as Exhibit-6. 

The High Court noticed another inconsistency. The trial court records showed that objection had been raised, but in paragraph 22 of its judgment incorrectly stated that no party objected to marking the FSL report under Section 293 CrPC. It also recorded that the FSL report from Kolkata was never brought on record for inexplicable reason.

The Bench proved whether Section 42, which governs how secret information is recorded and conveyed to superior officers, was followed. Although the informant claimed to have made a station diary entry about the secret information and to have informed his superior, no such record was produced. he Court held that a mere general diary entry does not automatically amount to compliance with Section 42(1) and 42(2). The High Court drew on Supreme Court’s decision in Mahabir Singh vs. State of Haryana, (2001) 7 SCC 148, wherein, it observed that station diary entries cannot be used as substantive evidence against an accused. It relied on Court's decision in Boota Singh vs. State of Haryana, (2021) 19 SCC 606, and the Constitution Bench's decision in Karnail Singh vs. State of Haryana, (2009) 8 SCC 539, wherein, the Court reaffirmed that total non-compliance with Section 42 is not permissible, and only delayed compliance with satisfactory explanation can be accepted. It referred the decision in Darshan Singh vs. State of Haryana, (2016) 14 SCC 358, to stress that the procedure under Section 42 NDPS Act was distinct from and cannot be substituted by the general Criminal Procedure Code process of FIR registration and forwarding. Nothing was shown to prove written recording of information and its forwarding to superior officers in the manner required by Section 42. It implied that that statutory compliance was lacking.

The trial court had acquitted the four persons travelling in the Bolero, holding that the prosecution failed to connect them with transport of ganja or any conspiracy under Section 29 NDPS Act. But on the same evidence, it convicted the three appellants only because they were found travelling in the truck from which contraband was allegedly recovered and could not explain how ganja came to be concealed there.

The High Court pointed out that the prosecution case itself was that the truck carrying ganja was being escorted by a Bolero vehicle, and witnesses had consistently said that four persons were apprehended from the Bolero and forwarded to jail. If, on this basis, Bolero occupants were given benefit of doubt, it was inconsistent to deny similar benefit to the truck occupants when the basic legal requirements of seizure, sampling and statutory compliance were not met.

Taking factors like lack of reliable evidence on sampling, absence of malkhana records, violation of Section 52A, non-compliance with Section 42, hostile independent witnesses, late and irregular production of FSL report, and differential treatment of co-accused into account, the Court held that the prosecution had failed to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt. It set aside the judgment of conviction.

This judgment is relevant for anyone facing charges under the NDPS Act, especially drivers, helpers and labourers picked up with vehicles allegedly carrying contraband. The High Court makes it clear that courts will not uphold harsh NDPS punishments if the police skip mandatory legal steps.

The decision underlines that secret information must be recorded and reported properly under Section 42, seizure and sampling must follow Section 52A, and the chain of custody must be clear. Independent witnesses, malkhana records and timely FSL reports matter. Where these elements are missing or doubtful, courts can give the accused the benefit of doubt, even in cases involving large quantities of alleged drugs.

This judgement tells the defence lawyers and accused persons to keenly question how police conducted search, seizure, sampling and storage, and not to accept police narratives at face value when legal safeguards are ignored.


Supreme Court grants pre-arrest bail to Gyanti Devi from Jahanabad

In Janti Devi @ Buchiya Devi @Gyanti Devi vs. The State of Bihar (2026),  Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justice Rajesh Bindal and Vijay Bishnoi granted pre-arrest bail to the appellant by its 6-page long order dated March 19, 2026. The appellant was a woman aged 42-43 years, who had filed the appeal seeking pre-arrest bail in connection with FIR dated March 15, 2025 registered at Police Station Jahanabad Thana, Jahanabad, Bihar under sections 126(2), 115(2), 109 and 3(5) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. 

The counsel for the appellant submitted that there are no allegations against her. Her entire family was involved in the case. Two minor sons were already granted bail being juvenile. The husband of the appellant is still in custody.

The Court observed:"5. After hearing learned counsel for the parties and considering the fact that entire family had been involved in the case, the appellant is a woman aged 42-43 and her husband is already in custody, in our opinion, she deserves to be granted pre-arrest bail."

Supreme Court reverses order by Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh in a cyber crime case, grants pre-arrest bail

In Abhishek Kumar vs. The State of Bihar (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices Sanjay Karol and Augustine George Masih passed a 2-page long order dated March 19, 2026 wherein it reversed the 2-page long order dated September 9, 2025 by Justice Prabhat Kumar Singh. Justice Singh had concluded:"Considering the seriousness and nature of accusation , recovery of huge incriminating articles and other circumstances of the case , prayer for pre-arrest bail of thepetitioner is hereby rejected." 

The Petitioner had approached the High Court apprehending arrest in a case registered for the offence punishable under section 111 (2), 319 (2), 318 (4), read with 3 (5) of BNS and and 66 (c) , 66 (d) of Information Technology Act. High Court's order records: "As per the prosecution case , on a secret
information, informant along with others conducted a raid was conducted in the house of this petitioner where huge incriminating articles were recovered and one co-accused Vikash Kumar was apprehended who disclosed the names of other accused persons including this petitioner and also confessed their involvement in the cyber crime."

Supreme Court's order reads:"In the event of arrest in connection with FIR No. 270 of 2025, registered at P.S. Sahebganj, District-Muzaffarpur, the petitioner shall be released on bail by the Investigating/Arresting Officer on such terms and conditions as imposed and found to be just, fair and reasonable. 8. The petitioner shall make himself available before the Investigating Officer on 25.03.2026 at 10:00 a.m. and on all such dates as he may be required. 9. Needless to add, the petitioner would maintain good conduct and not attempt to influence any of the witnesses, in any manner, till the completion of the trial."

Saturday, March 21, 2026

Supreme Court grants pre-arrest bail to Sardar Iqbal Singh in a cheating case with regard to money dispute

In Sardar Iqbal Singh @ Iqbal Singh Bagga @ Iqbal Singh vs.The State of Bihar (2026), Supreme Court's Division Bench of Justices Rajesh Bindal and Vijay Bishnoi passed a 4-page long order dated March 20, 2026 allowing the appeal for pre-arrest bail.. The prayer made in the appeal was for grant of pre-arrest bail to the appellant in connection with FIR No.308/2024 dated June 26, 2024 registered at Police Station Patrakar Nagar, Patna for the offences punishable under Sections 406, 420, 504/34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. 
 
The counsel for the appellant submitted that from a plain reading of the FIR, it was evident that it was a money dispute between the parties. The complainant was seeking to get the same recovered by initiating criminal process, which was nothing but misuse thereof. The state's counsel submitted that the appellant cheated the complainant. 
 
Supreme Court observed: "5. After hearing learned counsel for the parties and perusing the contents of the FIR, in our opinion, the appellant deserves concession of pre-arrest bail. 6. Accordingly, the appeal is allowed. In the event of arrest, the appellant shall be released on bail in connection with aforesaid FIR No.308/2024 on furnishing of bail bonds to the satisfaction of the arresting officer. Needless to add that appellant will continue to cooperate during investigation.